Quantum Wave Function: Infinite Sheet of Charge & Pinhole

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the quantum mechanics of a negative particle oscillating through a pinhole in an infinite, positive, uniform sheet of charge. The relevant equation is Schrödinger's time-independent equation, expressed as \(-\frac{{\hbar ^2 }}{{2m}}\frac{{d^2 \psi (x)}}{{dx^2 }} + V(x)\psi (x) = E\psi (x)\). The potential \(V(x)\) is derived from Gauss's Law, resulting in \(V(x) = ax\), which leads to a "vee" shaped potential well. The solution involves Airy functions, and matching boundary conditions requires computational assistance.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Schrödinger's time-independent equation
  • Familiarity with Airy functions
  • Knowledge of Gauss's Law in electrostatics
  • Basic concepts of quantum mechanics and potential wells
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and applications of Airy functions in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about solving Schrödinger's equation for various potential shapes
  • Explore computational tools for quantum mechanics simulations
  • Investigate the implications of electric fields from charged sheets on particle behavior
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, quantum mechanics students, and researchers interested in potential wells and particle dynamics in electric fields will benefit from this discussion.

GRDixon
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Imagine an infinite, positive, uniform sheet of charge with a pinhole in it. A negative particle oscillates back and forth through the pinhole and in the +-x direction. The magnitude of the force on it is constant in time (although the force reverses direction when the particle passes through the pinhole). Can anyone tell me what the formula for Psi(x) would be? Thanks. PS, I'm 72 years old, and this is not a homework problem. I just haven't found this particular potential in any of my limited supply of quantum mechanics texts.
 
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GRDixon said:
Imagine an infinite, positive, uniform sheet of charge with a pinhole in it. A negative particle oscillates back and forth through the pinhole and in the +-x direction. The magnitude of the force on it is constant in time (although the force reverses direction when the particle passes through the pinhole). Can anyone tell me what the formula for Psi(x) would be? Thanks. PS, I'm 72 years old, and this is not a homework problem. I just haven't found this particular potential in any of my limited supply of quantum mechanics texts.

I assume you want to find the energy eigenfunctions in the position representation, which means we must solve the energy eigenequation, aka Schrödinger's time independent equation [tex]- \frac{{\hbar ^2 }}{{2m}}\frac{{d^2 \psi (x)}}{{dx^2 }} + V(x)\psi (x) = E\psi (x)[/tex]. From Gauss Law, we know that the electric field outside of an infinite charged sheet is constant, so that [tex]V(x) = ax[/tex]. This problem then is equivalent to a particle in a "vee" shaped potential well. This solution to Schrödinger's equation is in terms of Airy functions. The two constants of intergration are then obtained by matching [tex]\psi (x)[/tex] with the two decaying exponentials outside the well. Very tedious, unless you use a computer.
Best wishes
 
eaglelake said:
I assume you want to find the energy eigenfunctions in the position representation, which means we must solve the energy eigenequation, aka Schrödinger's time independent equation [tex]- \frac{{\hbar ^2 }}{{2m}}\frac{{d^2 \psi (x)}}{{dx^2 }} + V(x)\psi (x) = E\psi (x)[/tex]. From Gauss Law, we know that the electric field outside of an infinite charged sheet is constant, so that [tex]V(x) = ax[/tex]. This problem then is equivalent to a particle in a "vee" shaped potential well. This solution to Schrödinger's equation is in terms of Airy functions. The two constants of intergration are then obtained by matching [tex]\psi (x)[/tex] with the two decaying exponentials outside the well. Very tedious, unless you use a computer.
Best wishes

Many Thanks. GRD
 

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