I have seen how one maps the rationals to the naturals by using prime bases. So it is quite clear that the rationals are countable. But it seems strange to me that between any 2 reals there is a rational. So it seems like there would be just as many rationals as reals. This probably has a simple answer but it is not clear to me. Any help will be appreciated.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Question about rationals on the real line.

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