MHB Question about Successor Function

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The discussion centers on the Peano Axioms, specifically the successor function denoted as S. It is established that the axiom "Sa = Sb implies a = b" confirms S as a function. Agapito clarifies that the definition of the successor function within the Peano Axioms inherently implies its functionality. Furthermore, Peano Arithmetic is defined as a theory that includes equality, which supports the assertion that if x equals y, then applying the function f to both yields equal results.

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agapito
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One of the Peano Axioms specifies

Sa = Sb --> a = b

where S is the successor function. How does one establish from the axioms that S is, in fact, a function, that is the converse

a = b --> Sa = Sb?

Probably a very simple matter, but I would appreciate any help in clarifying. Many thanks in advance,

Agapito
 
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That should be part of the definition! If we say, as part of, say, the Peano axioms, "there exist a successor function" then we are saying this is a function. The Wikipedia entry on the Peano axioms say ". The naturals are assumed to be closed under a single-valued "successor" function S." (my emphasis)
 
Peano Arithmetic is by definition a theory with equality. One of the equality axioms is $x=y\to f(x)=f(y)$ for all functional symbols of arity 1, and similarly for other arities.
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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