Questions about Attachments: Outer Measure and Infinity

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SUMMARY

This discussion addresses two key questions regarding outer measure and infinite unions in measure theory. The first question clarifies that equality does not hold for infinite unions, specifically stating that O_k \sim E_k = O_k \cap \tilde{E_k} and demonstrating that \cup O_n \sim E is not necessarily equal to \cup [O_n \sim E_n]. The second question explores the implications of E having an infinite measure, emphasizing that an open cover can exist without being equal to E itself, as demonstrated by the real line covering R~{0} while both share the same measure.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measure theory concepts, particularly outer measure
  • Familiarity with infinite unions and their properties
  • Knowledge of set operations, including intersection and union
  • Basic comprehension of real analysis and the real line
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  • Study the properties of outer measure in detail
  • Learn about the implications of infinite unions in set theory
  • Explore the concept of open covers in the context of measure theory
  • Investigate the relationship between different sets and their measures in real analysis
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Mathematicians, students of real analysis, and anyone studying measure theory who seeks to deepen their understanding of outer measure and infinite unions.

Artusartos
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I have 2 questions about the attachments.

1) In the second attachment, I'm a bit confused about the thing that I marked: [itex]O \sim E = \cup^{\infty}_{k=1} O_k \sim E \subseteq \cup^{\infty}_{k=1} [O_k \sim E_k][/itex]. I just don't understand how [itex]\cup^{\infty}_{k=1} O_k \sim E[/itex] can be smaller than [itex]\cup^{\infty}_{k=1} [O_k \sim E_k][/itex]. Isn't E equal to [itex]\cup^{\infty}_{k=1} E_k[/itex]?

2) Also, they are considering the measure of E when it is equal to infinity. But since outer measure means length...it means that the length of E is infinity. Then how is it possible for E to have an open cover unless that open cover is equal to E itself. In other words, how can there be anything greater than E? But if it is equal, then wouldn't their difference be zero? So why do we even need to check if it is less than epsilon?

Thanks in advance
 

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1) Equality does not necessarily hold for infinite unions. Write [tex]O_k \sim E_k=O_k \cap \tilde{E_k}[/tex] and see that [tex]\cup [O_n \sim E_n]=(O_1 \cap \tilde{E_1}) \cup (O_2 \cap \tilde{E_2}) \cup \cdots[/tex] while [tex]\cup O_n \sim E = (O_1 \cup O_2 \cup \cdots)\cap \tilde{E}= (O_1 \cap \tilde{E})\cup (O_2 \cap \tilde{E}) \cup \cdots.[/tex] So they are not necessarily the same. Term-by-term, you can see that [tex]O_k \cap \tilde{E} \subseteq O_k \cap \tilde{E}_k[/tex]
2) The real line contains R~{0} and both have the same measure. R is a cover of R~{0}
 
joeblow said:
1) Equality does not necessarily hold for infinite unions. Write [tex]O_k \sim E_k=O_k \cap \tilde{E_k}[/tex] and see that [tex]\cup [O_n \sim E_n]=(O_1 \cap \tilde{E_1}) \cup (O_2 \cap \tilde{E_2}) \cup \cdots[/tex] while [tex]\cup O_n \sim E = (O_1 \cup O_2 \cup \cdots)\cap \tilde{E}= (O_1 \cap \tilde{E})\cup (O_2 \cap \tilde{E}) \cup \cdots.[/tex] So they are not necessarily the same. Term-by-term, you can see that [tex]O_k \cap \tilde{E} \subseteq O_k \cap \tilde{E}_k[/tex]
2) The real line contains R~{0} and both have the same measure. R is a cover of R~{0}

Thank you so much :)
 

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