barnflakes
- 156
- 4
I keep reading about qubits, and they say that if a qubit is represented as [tex]\arrowvert \phi \rangle = \alpha|0\rangle + \beta|1\rangle[/tex] then the probability of it being in the 0 state is [tex]|\alpha^2|[/tex] and similarly for the 1 state.
My question is how do they get this value? Is it from [tex]|\langle 0 | \phi \rangle|^2[/tex] ?
My question is how do they get this value? Is it from [tex]|\langle 0 | \phi \rangle|^2[/tex] ?