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Really basic quantum mechanics question

  1. Apr 24, 2010 #1
    I keep reading about qubits, and they say that if a qubit is represented as [tex]\arrowvert \phi \rangle = \alpha|0\rangle + \beta|1\rangle[/tex] then the probability of it being in the 0 state is [tex]|\alpha^2|[/tex] and similarly for the 1 state.

    My question is how do they get this value? Is it from [tex]|\langle 0 | \phi \rangle|^2[/tex] ?
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 24, 2010 #2


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