Relationship between vertex function and current

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The discussion centers on the relationship between the vertex function and current, particularly how the equation involving the vertex function can be interpreted in both free-field and interacting cases. It is noted that the left-hand side uses bare propagators, which excludes external leg corrections, and is proposed as a definition for the vertex function in the interacting case. Concerns are raised about the right-hand side potentially including reducible diagrams, questioning its irreducibility. The conversation also references the Ward identity and clarifies that the S's represent exact electron propagators, aligning with the standard definitions of the vertex function in quantum field theory. This highlights the complexities in defining and utilizing the vertex function for accurate physical predictions.
geoduck
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Is there a proof or obvious reason why the vertex function is related to the current via:

S(p')\Gamma^\mu(p',p)S(p)=-\int \int dxdy e^{ipx}e^{-ipy} \langle T \psi(x) j^\mu(0) \bar{\psi}(y)\rangle

In the free-field case one can see it's true. But the interacting case?
 
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I would use that expression as a definition of the vertex function in the interacting case. The right hand side becomes an infinite perturbation series for the measurable/physical quantity on the left.

Actually, I notice it implies using bare propagators on the LHS, so the expression does not contain external leg corrections. I believe this definition is used to include only the irreducible vertex corrections, and one defines irreducible propagator corrections separately (self-energy), so that when building higher order diagrams one can easily keep track of divergences. (Also, if you're using LSZ to get S-matrix elements, you should leave off the legs anyways)
 
king vitamin said:
I would use that expression as a definition of the vertex function in the interacting case. The right hand side becomes an infinite perturbation series for the measurable/physical quantity on the left.

Actually, I notice it implies using bare propagators on the LHS, so the expression does not contain external leg corrections. I believe this definition is used to include only the irreducible vertex corrections, and one defines irreducible propagator corrections separately (self-energy), so that when building higher order diagrams one can easily keep track of divergences. (Also, if you're using LSZ to get S-matrix elements, you should leave off the legs anyways)

I can't see how the RHS of the equation is irreducible. I'm assuming j^\mu(0)=\psi(0)\gamma^\mu \bar{\psi}(0), and the entire RHS side, when done perturbatively, seems to sum all diagrams with two electrons and a photon, with the photon polarization left off. This would include the reducible diagrams too.

This is actually comes from a proof of the Ward identity using the operator formalism, so we're not trying to get S-matrix elements
 
Actually, you're right, this isn't the irreducible vertex function. Also, I think the S's are the exact electron propagators to be consistent with the RHS. In that case, gamma is the amputated three-point function. It's consistent with the standard definition of gamma in its relation to the S-matrix for the interaction of electrons with an external field, and it's use in defining the electric charge and magnetic moment.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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