Riddle: How Many Plums Were on the Tree?

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The discussion revolves around a riddle involving a man who "had not eyes" yet could see plums on a tree, leading to a debate about the interpretation of the wording and the implications for the number of plums. Participants argue that the phrase "saw plums" implies at least two plums, while others contend that "had not eyes" suggests he had zero eyes, complicating the logic of the riddle. The consensus emerges that if he neither took nor left plums, the only logical conclusion is that there were two plums on the tree—one he took and one he left. The conversation highlights the complexities of language and logic, with participants exploring how English phrasing can lead to different interpretations of the riddle's meaning. Ultimately, the answer is concluded to be two plums, with ongoing discussions about the nuances of language and logic in interpreting the riddle.
  • #31
Healey, why don't you actually respond to the reason the English does not support the answer, rather than simply saying "oh yes it works"?
 
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  • #32
DaveC426913 said:
I'm missing something. Why is 2 the max? Why couldn't there have been 867 plums on the tree?

He still could have taken one or zero, and left one or zero.

I think what we have to assume is that in reality, if you "see plums" (notice the plural) then you see more than 1 plum, and not 0 plums. You can actually see any amount more than one, even 867. The catch is later.

Lets look at it again:
"A man had not eyes, yet saw plums on a tree. He neither took plums, nor left plums. How many plums were on the tree?"

Look at the statement "He neither took plums"
if we are assuming that plums means more than one and not zero, then He didnt take more than one and didnt take zero. Therefor he took one.

Same with "nor left plums"
He didnt leave more than one plum and didnt leave zero. Therefor he left one plum.

Thats one on him, one in the tree. 2 plums.

The hint to how to follow the "plum(s)" part of the riddle lies with "A man had not eyes". If you said "a man had eyes" then it would be that he had a multitude(more than one) and not zero of eye. The negative of that would be to have just one eye.

Bartholomew, I am trying to show why it works using the fundamentals of language and more importantly implicit meaning to plural words. How is that not a scientific approach to validating the given argument?
 
  • #33
Oh, and about the logic statements, let's try it.

A man had not eyes, yet saw plums on a tree. He neither took plums, nor left plums. How many plums were on the tree?

if N = the number of eyes(ignoring semantics) (0,1,2,3,4...)
the plural of a word implies a number greater than one.
so Eyes = N, N>1

P = # of plum (0,1,2,3,4...)
Before man takes fruit:
Plums in the tree initial = Pti>1 because it says he sees "plums", once again the plural definition.
after the picking of said fruit.
Man would have Pm<=1 (the negative of plural, or not more than one)
Tree final would have Ptf<=1 (same thing)
Now we could say the tree then may have had 0 plums on it as well as 1.

BUT the previous argument gets rid of that possibility because the sum of plums
Pm + Ptf <=2
and
Pti > 1
So Pm+Ptf = Pti
so solve both cases
Pti <=2
Pti >1
Since we are dealing with integers the only possible answer is 2.
 
  • #34
Healey01 said:
Same with "nor left plums"
He didnt leave more than one plum and didnt leave zero. Therefor he left one plum.

Got it now.

My interpretation of 'didn't leave plums' is 'didn't put multiple plums back'. The interpretation you are using is 'didn't leave multiple plums on the tree'.
 
  • #35
Healey, your approach is reasonable if you interpret "he had not eyes" as "he did not have a plural number of eyes." My point which I have explained before is that in English, "he had not eyes" means "he did not have any eyes," or "he had zero eyes."

Incidentally, if you take the literal "non-plural" meaning, "he had not eyes" means "he did not have a plural number of eyes and he did not have zero eyes," since "zero eyes" is a plural number of eyes. So "he had not eyes" means "he had one eye" according to your logic, which is nonsense; if I say "I had not sunglasses" it does not mean I had exactly one "sunglass."
 
  • #36
Bartholomew said:
Healey, your approach is reasonable if you interpret "he had not eyes" as "he did not have a plural number of eyes." My point which I have explained before is that in English, "he had not eyes" means "he did not have any eyes," or "he had zero eyes."

Incidentally, if you take the literal "non-plural" meaning, "he had not eyes" means "he did not have a plural number of eyes and he did not have zero eyes," since "zero eyes" is a plural number of eyes. So "he had not eyes" means "he had one eye" according to your logic, which is nonsense; if I say "I had not sunglasses" it does not mean I had exactly one "sunglass."

Are you an English major? When you say "in English, "he had not eyes" means "he did not have any eyes" I see that as a mistake. Positive/negative structure in english is very much like mathematics, and when simplifying a statement you need to consider both the context and the properties of the base word provided. You can correctly say that "he had not" means exactly "he didnt have" but you cannot say that "eyes" means "any eyes". So if I say "I have eyes" does that mean I say "I have any eyes"? No. It means I have a plural of eye.

Also sunglasses has completely different word properties than eyes, becasue the singular for what we consider a set of sunglasses is plural because we shorten "a set/pair of sunglasses" to "sunglasses". So it is still singular of the word "pair".
 
  • #37
From dictionary.com, "any" (the relevant definition) means "One, some, every, or all without specification." So "eyes" does mean "any eyes." What would you say "any eyes" means?

I'm not sure why it doesn't sound right to say "I have any eyes." Probably that has something to do with grammar rather than the simple meaning of "any."

Okay, replace "sunglasses" with "motorcycles." If I say, "I did not have motorcycles," by the literal meaning, it says, "I did not have 0 or 2 or more motorcycles," so it says, "I had exactly 1 motorcycle," in contradiction to the common sense interpretation of it.
 
  • #38
See I see "I did not have motorcycles" to mean I had one motorcycle. Thats my common sense interpertation.

When you talk about "any" and "eyes" and say "eyes does mean "any eyes"" I don't see where you get that. I used dictionary.com too and it says :

PLURAL : # Grammar. Of or being a grammatical form that designates more than one of the things specified.

More than one. So "eyes" is the plural of "eye". There can be no disputing that. That means that there must be "more than one of" eye. If you do not have "more than one of" you have "one or zero of" when talking about positive quantities.

The only argument that slows us down is that "eye" is a tricky word like sunglasses.
If you didnt have any eyes, you would say "I do not have eyes." right? While if you didnt have any bottles of water you would say "I do not have a bottle of water." The way we describe a quantity of certain objects differs and creates problems like these.

I say we just agree that the English language is really messed up.
 
  • #39
All right, so "plural" was not what I meant. I meant, "of the form 'eyes.''" Zero eyes is of the form "eyes" in this sense. If you say, "he had not eyes," it means, absolutely literally, that he had nothing that can be spoken of as "eyes." "Zero eyes" literally can be spoken of as "eyes," as can "two eyes," or "three eyes," etc.

Anyway, my point is not about the idiosyncracies of interpreting "eyes" literally. My point is about how in the English language, "eyes" means "any eyes" which means "at least one eye." The word "any" means without specification; simply stressing that there are some. "He did not have eyes at all" is equivalent, and again it means, "he had zero eyes."
 

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