Riemann's zeta function "fractal" because of Voronin? I am not sure which rubric this belongs to, but since the zeta function is involved, I am putting it here. I noticed a comment (but was in too much of a hurry to remember the source) that, because of the "universality" of the Riemann zeta function as expressed in the Voronin Theorem, that the zeta function was in some form "fractal". I do not understand what aspect of fractals was being invoked in that comment, since the function does not fit the classic definition of a fractal as far as I can see. Any clues? Thanks.