- #1

bahamagreen

- 1,014

- 52

p(a)=0, p(b)=0 -> p(a=b)>0 ?

I seem to recall that the probability of one instance of choosing a particular number should be zero, but if two people are doing so and the probability in question is changed to whether the two choices are the same number, it seems like this probability of the two numbers being equal would be greater than zero, yet the two selections (a and b) individually have zero probability...?