Show equation has exactly one root

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The equation f(x) = 3x - 2 + cos(πx/2) has exactly one real root, as demonstrated using the Intermediate Value Theorem. The function f is continuous, with f(0) = -1 and f(1) = 1, confirming the existence of a root. Assuming two roots a and b leads to a contradiction via Rolle's Theorem, as the derivative f'(x) = 3 - (π/2)sin(πx/2) cannot equal zero for real x. The sine function's range limits the expression, ensuring f'(x) remains positive, thus confirming the uniqueness of the root.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Intermediate Value Theorem
  • Familiarity with Rolle's Theorem
  • Basic knowledge of trigonometric functions, specifically sine
  • Concepts of continuity in functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Intermediate Value Theorem in detail
  • Learn more about Rolle's Theorem and its applications
  • Explore the properties of trigonometric functions, focusing on their ranges
  • Practice solving equations involving derivatives and continuity
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Students beginning calculus, educators teaching mathematical analysis, and anyone interested in understanding the uniqueness of roots in continuous functions.

darius
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The question is show that the equation f(x)=3x-2+cos(Piex/2)=0 has exactly one real root.
Using the intermediate value theorem f is continuous and f(o)=-1 and f(1)=1., the equation has one root. Supposing it has two roots a and b , and
a<b. Then f(a)=0=f(b). Using Rolle's theorem there is a number d in (a,b) such that f'(x)=3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))=0 has a root in (a,b). But this is impossible since after factoring sin(piex/2)=6/pie is always greater than zero for all real x. I am having problems with factoring. Why is 3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))always >o for all x?
 
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darius said:
The question is show that the equation f(x)=3x-2+cos(Piex/2)=0 has exactly one real root.
Using the intermediate value theorem f is continuous and f(o)=-1 and f(1)=1., the equation has one root. Supposing it has two roots a and b , and
a<b. Then f(a)=0=f(b). Using Rolle's theorem there is a number d in (a,b) such that f'(x)=3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))=0 has a root in (a,b). But this is impossible since after factoring sin(piex/2)=6/pie is always greater than zero for all real x. I am having problems with factoring. Why is 3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))always >o for all x?


First it's pi not pie. Now for your question as to why it is always greater than zero this is because you reduced this to sin(pi*x/2) = 6/pi, but the range of the sine function is only from -1 to 1, and you should notice that 6/pi is greater than 1 hence 3 - (pi/2)(sin(pi*x/2)) is always greater than 0 for real x.
 
thank you so much. Sometimes, we have a hard time seeing the easiest step after going though the hard steps! I am just beginning calculus and I am starting college in the fall. Thank you! P. S. today was my first day at this forum!
 
darius said:
thank you so much. Sometimes, we have a hard time seeing the easiest step after going though the hard steps! I am just beginning calculus and I am starting college in the fall. Thank you! P. S. today was my first day at this forum!

Yes I know exactly what you mean, I'm glad i could help and welcome to the forums.
 

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