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Spin angular momentum of a spin-1 particle

  1. Feb 10, 2014 #1
    The spin angular momentum of a spin 1/2 particle is given by S = √(s(s+1))ℏ. If s =1/2,
    S= ((√3)/2)ℏ

    So, if s=1 is S= √2ℏ ?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 10, 2014 #2

    jtbell

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    Staff: Mentor

    Do you have some reason to be skeptical of the arithmetic?
     
  4. Feb 11, 2014 #3
    Not at all. Every source I checked to confirm it only gave S for spin-1/2. Thanks!
     
  5. Feb 11, 2014 #4

    jtbell

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    Staff: Mentor

    It's a general relationship that applies to all kinds of angular momentum in QM.

    Spin angular momentum: ##S = \sqrt{s(s+1)} \hbar##

    Orbital angular momentum: ##L = \sqrt{l(l+1)} \hbar##

    Total (spin + orbital) angular momentum: ##J = \sqrt{j(j+1)} \hbar##
     
  6. Feb 11, 2014 #5
    Thanks so much for helping clarify this!
     
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