Spin angular momentum of a spin-1 particle

  • Thread starter liometopum
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  • #1
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The spin angular momentum of a spin 1/2 particle is given by S = √(s(s+1))ℏ. If s =1/2,
S= ((√3)/2)ℏ

So, if s=1 is S= √2ℏ ?
 

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  • #2
jtbell
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Do you have some reason to be skeptical of the arithmetic?
 
  • #3
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Not at all. Every source I checked to confirm it only gave S for spin-1/2. Thanks!
 
  • #4
jtbell
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It's a general relationship that applies to all kinds of angular momentum in QM.

Spin angular momentum: ##S = \sqrt{s(s+1)} \hbar##

Orbital angular momentum: ##L = \sqrt{l(l+1)} \hbar##

Total (spin + orbital) angular momentum: ##J = \sqrt{j(j+1)} \hbar##
 
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  • #5
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Thanks so much for helping clarify this!
 

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