- #1

Lapidus

- 344

- 12

How exactly does the minus sign arise in eq. 43.10? The sentence below states because the functional derivative goes through one spinor, but I can't see how that works...

book is online here http://www.physics.ucsb.edu/~mark/ms-qft-DRAFT.pdf

equation 43.10 is on pdf page 273

thank you