Stewart's Galois Theory doesn't make sense

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the interpretation of a lemma from Stewart's Galois Theory regarding irreducible polynomials and their divisibility properties. Participants are examining the implications of the lemma and questioning its clarity and correctness in the context of polynomial division.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a counterexample to the lemma, suggesting that it incorrectly states the conditions under which an irreducible polynomial divides products of other polynomials.
  • Another participant proposes that the lemma's phrasing may not be exclusive, implying that both conditions could hold simultaneously.
  • A third participant asserts that the lemma is fundamentally about the equivalence of irreducibility and primality in the context of polynomials over a field.
  • A later reply clarifies that in mathematics, the phrase "either A or B" can include the possibility of both A and B being true, which may affect the interpretation of the lemma.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing interpretations of the lemma, with some questioning its clarity and correctness while others defend its implications. No consensus is reached regarding the lemma's validity or the interpretation of "either A or B."

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved assumptions regarding the definitions of irreducibility and primality, as well as the specific conditions under which the lemma applies. The discussion highlights potential ambiguities in the lemma's wording.

swampwiz
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I am going through this book, and on page 38, there is

LEMMA 3.15
Let K be a subfield of C, f an irreducible polynomial over K, and g, h polynomials over K. If g divides gh, then either f divides h or f divides h.

OK, so I have proven that f must divide over g or h - i.e., if f doesn't divide g, it must divide h - but it seems that f could still divide both, which is not what the text says.

f = ( x - 1 )

g = ( x - 1 )2 ( x - 2 )

h = ( x - 1 )3 ( x - 3 )

g h = ( x - 1 )5 ( x - 2 ) ( x - 3 )

Clearly, f divides ( g h ), g & h, so the LEMMA is wrong.

What am I missing here?
 
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I assume it is f divides gh. But the either is not necessarily exclusive. But, yes, it could be made more clear, I agree.
 
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swampwiz said:
I am going through this book, and on page 38, there is

LEMMA 3.15
Let K be a subfield of C, f an irreducible polynomial over K, and g, h polynomials over K.
If g
f
divides gh, then either f divides h or f divides h.
g

This is simply the fact that irreducibility and primality are the same thing in ##K[x]##. Lemma 3.15 if written correctly says, that any irreducible polynomial is prime.
 
in mathematics the phrase "either A or B" always means "either A or B or both".
 

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