MHB Sum involving pi, ln(2) and Catalan's constant

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The discussion focuses on proving the relationship between a specific double sum and the integral involving logarithmic and trigonometric functions. It establishes that the sum of alternating series can be expressed as a combination of π, ln(2), and Catalan's constant, G. The integral of ln(1+x²)/(1+x²) from 0 to infinity is shown to equal π ln(2), leading to further simplifications. The integral is broken down into parts, revealing that the integral from 0 to 1 can be expressed in terms of G. The final result confirms that the series expansion aligns with the initial findings without requiring additional processing.
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Inspired by http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?560-integrals thread: By considering the integral $\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}\;{dx}$ or otherwise,
show that $\displaystyle \sum_{k \ge 0}~\sum_{0 \le j \le k}\frac{(-1)^k}{(2k+3)(j+1)} = \frac{1}{2}\pi\ln(2)-G$ where $G$ is Catalan's constant.
 
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In another post it has been demonstrated that...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \pi\ \ln 2$ (1)

Now with simple steps You can find that...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx + \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = 2\ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx - 2 \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1+x^{2}}\ dx $ (2)

... so that is...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ \ln 2 + \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1+x^{2}}\ dx $ (3)

Some years ago I 'discovered' that is...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} x^{n}\ \ln x\ dx = -\frac{1}{(n+1)^{2}}$ (4)

... so that is...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = - \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{(2n+1)^{2}} = - G$ (5)

... and finally...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ \ln 2 -G$ (6)

Now find the series expansion of the definite integral in (6) is perfectly possible... but in my opinion is more elegant the (6) without any more 'processing'...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Good job. Here's the series expansion done just for completion.

$\begin{aligned} \int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}\;{dx} & = \int_{0}^{1}\bigg(\sum_{k \ge 0}(-1)^kx^{2k}\bigg)\bigg(\sum_{k\ge 0}\frac{(-1)^kx^{2k+2}}{k+1}\bigg)\;{dx} \\& = \int_{0}^{1}\sum_{k \ge 0}~\sum_{0 \le j \le k} (-1)^{k-j}x^{2k-2j}\cdot\frac{(-1)^jx^{2j+2}}{j+1}\;{dx} \\& = \int_{0}^{1}\sum_{k \ge 0}~\sum_{0 \le j \le k} \frac{(-1)^k x^{2k+2}}{j+1}\;{dx} \\& = \sum_{k \ge 0}~\sum_{0 \le j \le k} ~\int_{0}^{1}\frac{(-1)^k x^{2k+2}}{j+1}\;{dx} \\& = \sum_{k \ge 0}~\sum_{0 \le j \le k} \frac{(-1)^k}{(j+1)(2k+3)}.\end{aligned}$
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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