Hi, I was wondering whether the following is true at all. The first isomorphism theorem gives us a relation between a group, the kernel, and image of a homomorphism acting on the group. Could this possibly also imply that there exists a surjective homomorphism either mapping the previous kernel to the image or the image to the kernel? It's not a homework question per se, just a question of mine. Cheers.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Surjection between kernel and image of a homomorphism

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