Undergrad Symmetric, self-adjoint operators and the spectral theorem

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In quantum mechanics, observables should be represented by self-adjoint operators to ensure a purely real spectrum and the existence of an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors, as symmetric operators do not guarantee these properties. Essential self-adjointness can suffice in certain contexts, particularly in infinite-dimensional Hilbert spaces. The discussion highlights the challenge of ensuring that products of unbounded self-adjoint operators are well-defined, as they typically do not share the same domain. However, in many quantum theories, a common dense domain exists that allows for the proper definition of operator products. Overall, careful consideration of operator domains is crucial in quantum mechanics.
Neutrinos02
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Hi Guys,

at the moment I got a bit confused about the notation in some QM textbooks. Some say the operators should be symmetric, some say they should be self-adjoint (or in many cases hermitian what maybe means symmetric or maybe self-adjoint). Which condition do we need for our observables (cause they are not the same in the case of an infinite-dimensional Hilbertspace)?

If symmetric is enough why can we find an othonormal basis of eigenvectors (since the spectral theorem holds only for self-adjoint operators)?

Thanks for your help
 
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The observables should be self-adjoint operators, but essential self-adjointness would do. There's no guarrantee for a purely real spectrum for a symmetric operator.
 
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Thanks for your answers. The fact that the operator should be self-adjoint makes sense but there is one problem left.

If we assume that all the operators are self-adjoint and not defined everywhere (since they are unbounded) how can we make sure that the products of operators are well-definied, i.e. why is the image of the first in the domain of the second and so on?
 
This is a very good question. Self-adjoint operators won't typically have the same domain, but it may happen that the maximal common domain of them is an essential self-adjointness domain and moreover this domain is also invariant for the polynomial algebra.
Example: the Schwartz test function space in R is a common dense everywhere invariant domain for the x, p and p^2 (this is the free particle Hamiltonian) operators. All 3 of them are esa when restricted to this space.
 
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Neutrinos02 said:
If we assume that all the operators are self-adjoint and not defined everywhere (since they are unbounded) how can we make sure that the products of operators are well-defined, i.e. why is the image of the first in the domain of the second and so on?
In general this is not the case and the product need not exist. However, in most quantum theories of interest, there is an algebra of operators of interest with a fixed common dense domain (for ##N##-particle QM, the Schwartz space in ##3N## dimensions).
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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