- #1
zonde
Gold Member
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I would like to ask question about symmetrization postulate.
I was reading this paper http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0511002 but I did not get clear answer to the question: is there some mathematical reason (given other postulates of QM) why we require that description of two (several) indistinguishable particles has to have any symmetry?
Basically why description of two indistinguishable particles can't be probabilistic combination of two descriptions of single particles? Is this just empirical observation (that they can't) or is it related to other postulates of QM?
I was reading this paper http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0511002 but I did not get clear answer to the question: is there some mathematical reason (given other postulates of QM) why we require that description of two (several) indistinguishable particles has to have any symmetry?
Basically why description of two indistinguishable particles can't be probabilistic combination of two descriptions of single particles? Is this just empirical observation (that they can't) or is it related to other postulates of QM?