member 141513
In relativity, the scalar wave equation in the coordinate system (x,y,z,ict)
is
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial (ict)^2}=0
In 3D classical mechanics, the Laplace equation is:{when the coordinate system is (x,y,z)+t}
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}=0
And the ordinary wave equation is
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}=\frac{1}{v^2}\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial t^2}
the first equation is similar to the third,and the second equation has the same format of dimensions as the first.
So, does this mean that a wave equation in 4 dimensions is a 4-D laplace equation in relativity,or something else,Thx very much.
is
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial (ict)^2}=0
In 3D classical mechanics, the Laplace equation is:{when the coordinate system is (x,y,z)+t}
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}=0
And the ordinary wave equation is
\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial z^2}=\frac{1}{v^2}\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial t^2}
the first equation is similar to the third,and the second equation has the same format of dimensions as the first.
So, does this mean that a wave equation in 4 dimensions is a 4-D laplace equation in relativity,or something else,Thx very much.