The determination of a particle's spin

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the determination of a particle's spin, particularly in the context of electromagnetic fields. It establishes that quantum mechanics (QM) dictates a particle's spin is indeterminate until measured along a specific axis, yielding discrete values such as ±ħ/2 for electrons. The conversation highlights that while electromagnetic fields are commonly used for measurement, many particle spins, including those of neutral particles like neutrinos, can be measured without them, utilizing methods such as conservation of angular momentum.

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  • Quantum Mechanics principles
  • Understanding of particle spin and measurement techniques
  • Knowledge of electromagnetic fields and their effects
  • Familiarity with conservation of angular momentum
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  • Explore measurement techniques for neutral particles
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Randall71284
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If I am unable to distinguish the spin of a particle in an absence of an electric field or magnetic field, how am I able to determine whether there is an electric or magnetic field in a real-life context?

How is it that we can be sure of the uncertainty of the spin of particles if we are unable to create a situation in which there is an absence of an electric or magnetic field?

If a small enough field could be ignored (as there still are fields, however small in magnitude, acting on every particle in the universe), is there a level of magnitude in which the electromagnetic fields can be deemed insignificant that the particle’s spin is unaffected?
 
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I don't understand what you mean. How else do you want to measure the spin of your particle than with applying some electromagnetic field?
 
I mean that if we could only measure the spin of a particle by applying an electromagnetic field, and since there must be an effect on the particle by some electromagnetic field, then is there a point in saying that we must apply some electromagnetic field to measure it? Will there be any uncertainty in a particle's spin?
 
Randall71284 said:
I mean that if we could only measure the spin of a particle by applying an electromagnetic field, and since there must be an effect on the particle by some electromagnetic field, then is there a point in saying that we must apply some electromagnetic field to measure it? Will there be any uncertainty in a particle's spin?
I'm also not sure what you're asking. QM says that a particle's spin (relative to any given axis) is indeterminate unless you measure its spin about that axis. If you do, you get one of a set of possible discrete values. In the case of an electron, for example, you get ##\pm \dfrac \hbar 2##.

What are you asking in relation to that?
 
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"How else do you want to measure the spin of your particle than with applying some electromagnetic field?"
Most particle spins are measured without an electrical electromagnetic field, especially neutral particles.
The neutrino spin was measured using conservation of angular momentum.
 

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