ophase said:
Here's the original proof by Yukawa
Yukawa potential [tex]U(r)=\frac{-g^{2}_{s}}{4\pi}\frac{e^{-r/a}}{r}[/tex]
gs: Yukawa constant
Yukawa proposed that nuclear force has to be like elektromagnetic force. So the potential above need to satisfy second green equation with a source term:
[tex](\nabla^{2}-\frac{1}{a^{2}})U(r)=g^{2}_{s}\delta(r)[/tex]
Yukawa generalized the equation for non-static states.
[tex](\nabla^{2}-\frac{d^{2}}{c^{2}dt^{2}}-\frac{1}{a^{2}})U(r,t)=0[/tex] (*)
This equation is also relativistical invariant. Then Yukawa quantized the potential:
[tex]U(r)=\frac{-g^{2}_{s}}{4\pi}\frac{e^{ipr/\hbar-iEt/\hbar}}{r}[/tex]
Now we put that potential expression in the second green equation (*) and we get:
[tex]\frac{E^{2}}{c^{2}\hbar^{2}}=\frac{p^{2}}{\hbar^{2}}+\frac{1}{a^{2}}[/tex]
[tex]E^2 =p^2c^2+\frac{c^{2}\hbar^{2}}{a^{2}}[/tex]
Here the last term should be the mass term:
[tex]m^{2}_{u}c^{4}=\frac{c^{2}\hbar^{2}}{a^{2}}[/tex]
If we assume a=2 fm, then the exchange particle mass is mu= 100 MeV.
In 1947 Pion discovered at 140 MeV and it's proved that there is no meson in the nucleus according to Yukawa theory.
I don't know the rest of that story. Probably someone made a correction about the calculation above. Any ideas??
The Yukawa potential is a solution of the Klein-Gordon equation
[tex](\nabla^{2}-\frac{1}{c^{2}}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial t^{2}})U(r,t)= \left( \frac{2\pi m_0 c}{h}\right)^2 U(r,t)[/tex]
Assuming U independent of time, it may be written
[tex](\frac{1}{r^{2}}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}\left(r^2 \frac{\partial}{\partial r} \right)U(r)= \left( \frac{2\pi}{\lambda_C}\right)^2 U(r)[/tex]
where [tex]\lambda_C[/tex] is the Compton wavelength of the particle. The simplest solution is then :
[tex]U(r)=\frac{U_0 e^{2\pi r/\lambda_C}}{r}[/tex]
However, this solution is not physical: it is wrong to suppress the time derivative. We have to solve the complete equation with a periodical but stationary potential:
[tex]U(r)=U_0\frac{e^{2\pi r/\lambda_C-i\omega t}}{r}[/tex]
The complete equation is:
[tex](\nabla^{2}-\frac{1}{c^{2}}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial t^{2}})U(r,t)= \left( \frac{2\pi m_0 c}{h}\right)^2 U(r,t)[/tex]
Replacing U we get after simplyfying the time dependent exponential :
[tex]\frac{1}{r^{2}}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}\left(r^2 \frac{\partial}{\partial r} \right)U(r)= - \left(\frac{\omega^2}{c^{2}} -\left( \frac{2\pi}{\lambda_C}\right)^2 \right)U(r)[/tex]
The solution is almost the same as above :
[tex]U(r)=\frac{U_0}{r} e^\sqrt{\left( \frac{2\pi}{\lambda_C}\right)^2-{\frac{\omega^2}{c^{2}}}[/tex]
There is a physical solution if :
[tex]\frac{2\pi}{\lambda_C}<{\frac{\omega}{c}[/tex]
That is when the solution is imaginary and tending to zero at infinity: