- #1
redbaldyhead
- 9
- 0
for hv>>kT how does exp(hv/kT) compare to 1?
I understand hv >>KT leads to an exponential fall in brightness but why did Planck introduce 1 in his equation.
and only for values hv<<kT can this exponential be expanded!
Thanks for any help!
I understand hv >>KT leads to an exponential fall in brightness but why did Planck introduce 1 in his equation.
and only for values hv<<kT can this exponential be expanded!
Thanks for any help!