Time-dependent Perturbation theory -maths problems

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around quantum physics, specifically the derivation of time-dependent perturbation theory. The original poster expresses difficulty in understanding the mathematical structures and formulas involved in the derivation process, particularly in relation to the Hamiltonian and the equations governing perturbed wave functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the product rule of differentiation in the context of the equations presented. There are attempts to clarify the steps involved in deriving the equations, with some participants questioning the understanding of specific mathematical manipulations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights and clarifications on the mathematical steps involved. Some guidance has been offered regarding the differentiation process and the implications of inner products in the context of the equations. However, there is no explicit consensus on the interpretation of all steps.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the complexity of the mathematical derivations and the potential for misunderstanding due to the intricacies of quantum mechanics. The original poster also mentions language barriers, which may influence the clarity of communication.

Imperatore
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Hey guys,

I signed up here because I needed some information on some quantum physics problems.

My question is related to quantum physics, and more precisely the derivation of time dependent perturbation theory. First of all, I am not able to understand all the maths structures and formulas, and it is in my opinion the biggest difficult I need to overcome to fully understand it. I checked some books and scripts just to find some more information about it, but unfortunately my doubts weren't stirred up. I hope that here I could find some more help and I really appreciate it.

So to begin with:

We get a hamiltonian, that can be written as
H(t)=H _{0}+V(t), where V(t) is a small time-dependent perturbation.

Let <b>\psi ^{(0)} _{k} </b> be the wave functions of stationary states of unperturbed system with time multiplier. Any solution to the unperturbed wave equation can be expressed as the sum :
\psi= \sum_{k}a _{k} \psi ^{(0)} _{k}

The solutions to perturbed equation:
ih \frac{\delta}{\delta t}\psi=(H _{0}+V)\psi (1) (where h is Dirac constant, Planck constant divided by 2 Pi)
are in the form of:

\psi= \sum_{k}a _{k}(t)\psi ^{(0)} _{k} (2)

Substituting (2) to the (1) and knowing that functins \psi^{(0)}_{k} satisfy and equation :

ih \frac{\delta}{\delta t }\psi _{k} ^{(0)}=H_{0}\psi _{k} ^{(0)}

somehow we obtain: (here is the problem for me. I don't understand how they solve below mentioned equations step by step)

ih \sum_{k}\psi _{k} ^{(0)} \frac{d}{dt}a _{k}(t)= \sum_{k} a_{k}V\psi _{k} ^{(0)}

and then multiplying this equation from left side by \psi _{m} ^{(0)}* and integrating we get :

ih \frac{d}{dt}a _{m}(t) = \sum_{k}V _{mk}(t)a _{k}(t)

where V _{mk}(t)=\int \psi _{m} ^{(0)*} V\psi _{k} ^{(0)}dq=V _{mk}e ^{i\omega _{mk}t}

and \omega _{mk}= \frac{E _{m} ^{(0)}-E _{k} ^{(0)} }{h}

I will be very thankful if someone could explain it to me. I want to mention, that the majority of this text come from Landau book "Quantum mechanics. Non relativistic theory". At the end I want to add that I am Polish, so my English may be not perfect, but I still hope it is enough communicative ;)

 
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Imperatore said:
(here is the problem for me. I don't understand how they solve below mentioned equations step by step)
It's just product rule of differentiation
$$\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial t} = \sum_{k} \frac{\partial }{\partial t} \left(a _{k}(t)\psi ^{(0)} _{k}\right) = \sum_{k} a _{k}(t) \frac{\partial \psi^{(0)} _{k}}{\partial t} + \psi ^{(0)} _{k} \frac{\partial a _{k}(t)}{\partial t}$$
Is that not what you can't understand?
 
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Ye,it is obvoius relation from mathematial analysis ;)
the derivative of a sum is the sum of the derivatives.
So it looks like that (step by step):

ih\frac{\delta}{\delta t}\sum_{k}a _{k}(t)\psi _{k}^{(0)}=(H _{0}+V)\sum_{k}{a _{k}(t)\psi _{k}^{(0)} \Leftrightarrow ih\left( \sum_{k}a_{k}(t) \frac{\delta}{\delta t} \psi_{k}^{(0)}+\sum_{k} \frac{d}{dt} a_{k}(t) \psi_{k}^{(0)} \right)=H_{0} \sum_{k}a_{k}(t)\psi_{k}^{(0)}+V\sum_{k}a_{k}(t)\psi_{k}^{(0)}

From ih\frac{\delta}\delta t\psi_{k}^{(0)}=H_{0}\psi_{k}^{(0)} we obtain by multiplying boths sides by\left(\frac{-i}{h}\right) \Rightarrow \frac{\delta}{\delta t}\psi_{k}^{(0)}=-\frac{i}{h}H_{0}\psi_{k}^{(0)}. Substituting this, gives us the final result
ih \sum_{k}\psi_{k}^{(0)}\frac{d}{d t}a_{k}(t)=\sum_{k}a_{k}V\psi_{k}^{0}

But the problem is to multiply this equation by \psi_{m}^(0*) and then taking integral:

ih\int\sum_{k}\psi_{m}^{(0*)}\psi_{k}^{(0)}\frac{d}{dt}a_{k}(t)=\int\sum_{k}\psi_{m}^{(0)*}V\psi_{k}^{(0)}
 
Ok, so I would retype this onto form ih\sum_{k}\int\psi_{m}^{(0)*}\psi_{k}^{(0)}\frac{d}{dt}a_{k}(t)=\sum_{k}\int\psi_{m}^{(0)*}V\psi_{k}^{(0)}
and then knowing that the integral \int \psi_{m}^{(0)*}\psi_{k}^{(0)} can be expressed as the inner product (\psi_{m}^{(0)*},\psi_{k}^{(0)})=\delta_{mn}
So for all k\neq m components of the sum are zero, and finally we obtain: ih\frac{d}{dt}a_{m}(t)=\sum_{k}\int\psi_{m}^{(0)*}V\psi_{k}^{(0)}

What do you think about it ?
 
There should be ##a_k(t)## in the right hand side, other than that I don't see anything wrong with your derivation.
 
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