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Time derivative of schrodinger equation

  1. Jun 30, 2011 #1
    Why is the TDSE first derivative in time. Now I know that it is required so that the wave functions are complex... but is there any physical interpretation for this requirment??
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 30, 2011 #2

    alxm

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    Ultimately, it's a postulate of QM. But you can rationalize it in various ways, for instance by Noether's theorem, energy is the conserved quantity under time translations.
     
  4. Jun 30, 2011 #3
    Can u give me some examples of what would happen if it were a second order derivative in time... and why should the wave functions always be complex???
     
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