A particle of mass m is in the state ψ(x,t) = Ae-a[mx2/h-bar)+it]
I know that to normalize a wave function I should use ∫ψ2 = 1
The Attempt at a Solution
The book gives the solution as 1 = 2abs(A)2∫ e-2amx2/h-bar) dx
My question is where does the "2" factor in front of the A2 come from?