MHB "Two step" Markov chain is also a Markov chain.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the properties of a two-step Markov chain defined on a compact metric space \(X\) with its Borel \(\sigma\)-algebra. A measurable map \(P:X\to \mathscr P(X)\) is established, where \(\mathscr P(X)\) represents the set of Borel probability measures on \(X\). The new measure \(\nu\) is defined as \(\nu(E) = \int_X P_x(E)\ d\mu(x)\), illustrating the transition probabilities over two steps. The main inquiry is whether the composed map \(P^2\) remains a Borel measurable Markov chain, with a hypothesis suggesting that the map from \(\mathscr P(X)\) to itself is continuous.

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caffeinemachine
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Let $X$ be a compact metric space and $\mathcal X$ be its Borel $\sigma$-algebra. Let $\mathscr P(X)$ be the set of all the Borel probability measures on $X$. A **Markov chain** on $X$ is a measurable map $P:X\to \mathscr P(X)$. We write the image of $x$ under $P$ as $P_x$. (Here $\mathscr P(X)$ is quipped with the Borel $\sigma$-algebra coming from the weak* topology).

Intuitively, for $E\in \mathcal X$, we think of $P_x(E)$ as the probability of landing inside $E$ in the next step given that we are sitting at $x$ at the current instant.

Now let $\mu$ be a probability measure on $X$. We define a new measure $\nu$ on $X$ as follows:

$$\nu(E) = \int_X P_x(E)\ d\mu(x)$$

Intuitively, suppose in the firt step we land in $X$ according to $\mu$. The probability of landing on $x\in X$ according to the measure $\mu$ is $d\mu(x)$.
Now let the Markov chain $P$ drive us. Then the probability of landing in $E$ in the next step given that we are at $x$ is $P_x(E)$.
So the probability of landing in $E$ in two steps is $\int_X P_x(E)\ d\mu(x)$.

So we have a map $\mathscr P(X)\to \mathscr P(X)$ which takes a probability measure $\mu$ and produces a new measure $\nu$ as defined above.

Composing $P:X\to \mathscr P(X)$ with $\mathscr P(X)\to \mathscr P(X)$ we again get a map $X\to \mathscr P(X)$, which I will denote by $P^2$.

Question. Is $P^2$ aslo a Markov chain, that is, is $P^2$ aslo Borel measurable?

My guess is that the map $\mathscr P(X)\to \mathscr P(X)$ is actually continuous, which would answer the question in the affirmative. But I am not sure.
 
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Walagaster said:
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I am not sure what is wrong. It's appearing on my computer just fine.

Perhaps you are viewing it on another device?
 
caffeinemachine said:
I am not sure what is wrong. It's appearing on my computer just fine.

When I quote-reply your original post, I find that each paragraph is inside a set of color-tags with color code #cbd2ac. When I remove those tags, the text becomes readable.
 
caffeinemachine said:
I am not sure what is wrong. It's appearing on my computer just fine.
Screenshot shows what I'm getting.

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If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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