Uncovering the Truth about e: Proofs and Derivatives

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the proofs of two results related to the mathematical constant e: its universality expressed through the series sum of factorials and the derivative of the exponential function e^x. The scope includes theoretical aspects and mathematical reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests proofs for the universality of e and the derivative of e^x, indicating dissatisfaction with available resources.
  • Another participant suggests that the derivative of a^x at x=0 leads to the conclusion that there exists a unique number (e) such that f'(0)=1, but does not provide a formal proof.
  • A different participant mentions that the derivative of e^x can be derived using the geometric definition of the natural logarithm, though they express concern about the reliance on this definition for a complete proof.
  • One participant proposes using the binomial expansion and a lemma about factorial limits to establish the universality of e, while also noting the need for a definition of exp(x) that is equal to its own derivative.
  • Another participant claims that the first result follows from the second if Taylor series are employed, suggesting a connection between the two proofs.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express various approaches to proving the results, but there is no consensus on a single method or proof. Multiple competing views and techniques are presented without resolution.

Contextual Notes

Some arguments rely on definitions and assumptions that may not be universally accepted, such as the definition of exp(x) or the properties of Taylor series. The discussion also reflects differing levels of satisfaction with the proofs provided.

dextercioby
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I'm looking for proofs to the 2 following results.

Let

[tex]\displaystyle{e=: \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n}[/tex]

Show that:

1. Universality of e.

[tex]\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k!} = e[/tex]

2. Derivative of [itex]e^x[/itex].

[tex](e^x)' = e^x, ~ \forall x\in\mathbb{R}[/tex]

Searching google didn't get me satisfactory results.

Could you, please, post or link to proofs ? Thank you!
 
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The classic definition is based on the fact that d(2^x)/dx ~ 0.693147 and d(3^x)/dx~1.098612 at x=0. Then you guess that there must be a number such that f'(0)=1 where f=a^x (it turns out a =e and is unique).

===
g(x)=b^x

g'(x) =lim h->0 b^(x+h)-b^x/h
=lim h->0 (a^x)(a^h -1)/h
=(a^x) lim h->0 (a^h -1)/h
and the derivative is where at x=0 we get
lim h->0 (a^h -1)/h = f'(0)

f ' (0) = (2^x)(a^h -1)/h ~ 0.693147
f ' (0) = (3^x)(a^h -1)/h ~1.098612
So it seems like there should be a number that converges to 1.
But I don't know the proof that you mentioned. Hope that helps somewhat.
 
Also, if you assume the geometric definition of natural log and its derivative then the derivative of e^x can be computed from the fact that

d(ln(exp(x))/dx = (d/dx (e^x))*(1/e^x) = 1 >>> d/dx (e^x) = e^x
probably not the most satisfactory answer since it pushes off the proof to something contingent on the natural log. But its perfectly accurate.

Of course you can also try the taylor expansion but that's not really "first principals"
 
dextercioby said:
[tex]\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k!} = e[/tex]
Lemma:
[tex]\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n!}{n^k (n-k)!} = 1[/tex]
Use the above in conjunction with the binomial expansion of
[tex]e=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac 1 n\right)^n[/tex]
[tex](e^x)' = e^x, ~ \forall x\in\mathbb{R}[/tex]
You need a definition of exp(x) for this. One definition of exp(x) is that it is the function that is equal to its own derivative such that exp(0)=1. That makes the proof a bit too easy. Try using
[tex]\exp(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac x n\right)^n[/tex]
 
First one follows from second if you use taylor series.
 

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