Understanding Rational Inequalities: Why Can't We Multiply by the Denominator?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around rational inequalities, specifically the expression (1+x)/(1-x) ≥ 1. Participants are exploring the implications of multiplying both sides of the inequality by the denominator (1-x) and the conditions under which this operation is valid.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question why multiplying by the denominator is problematic, particularly when considering the sign of (1-x) based on the value of x. There are discussions about setting the inequality to zero by subtracting 1 from both sides and the implications of doing so.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on how to approach the problem, including considering cases based on the sign of (1-x) and the resulting implications for the inequality. There is an exploration of different methods, including the suggestion to multiply by (1-x)² to avoid sign issues.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of rational inequalities and the conditions that affect the validity of operations performed on them. The discussion includes assumptions about the values of x and their impact on the inequality.

rambo5330
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Homework Statement


Quick question on Rational Inequalities..

Say I have

[tex]\frac{1+x}{1-x}[/tex] [tex]\huge\geq[/tex] 1

Why can we not multiply 1 by denominator (1-x) is this because if x > 1 then (1-x) would be negative in effect changing the sign of the inequality.. but if x<1 then the inequality is preserved? therefore we subtract 1 from either side..setting the inequality equal to zero?

sorry the formatting isn't quite right on that expression but the left hand side is all one expression .. greater than or = 1
 
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rambo5330 said:
Why can we not multiply 1 by denominator (1-x) is this because if x > 1 then (1-x) would be negative in effect changing the sign of the inequality.. but if x<1 then the inequality is preserved?

Yes.

rambo5330 said:
therefore we subtract 1 from either side..setting the inequality equal to zero?

You can do this as well.

Alternatively, you can multiply by (1-x)2.
 
What you can do is think "IF 1- x> 0, then I can multiply both sides by it and get [itex]1+ x\ge 1- x[/itex]". Add x to both sides and subtract 1 from both sides and you have [itex]2x\ge 0[/itex] which is the same as [itex]x\ge 0[/itex]. Now that was assuming 1- x> 0 which is the same as 1> x. So you have [itex]0\le x< 1[/itex].

Now, IF 1- x< 0, multiplying both sides by a negative number reverses the inequality: [itex]1+ x\le 1- x[/itex]. Again, add x to both sides and subtract 1 from both sides and you have [itex]2x\le 0[/itex] or [itex]x\le 0[/itex]. The "IF" is true as long as 1< x which can't be true if [itex]x\le 0[/itex] so this gives NO new solution.

The algebra gets a bit complicated but, yes, you can subtract 1 from each side: [itex]\frac{x+1}{1-x}- 1= \frac{x+ 1- (1- x)}{1-x}= \frac{2x}{1-x}\ge 0[/itex] which is true as long as the numerator and denominator have the same sign.

That is, both 2x> 0 and 1- x> 0 which gives x> 0 and x< 1 as before, or both 2x< 0 and 1- x< 0 which gives x< 0 and x> 1 which is impossible.
 
thanks for the excellent explanation!
 

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