I Understanding the Derivation of the Ginzburg Criterion for the Ising Model

Click For Summary
The Ginzburg Criterion for the Ising Model states that the fluctuation term, represented as the average of the product of deviations from the order parameter, must be significantly smaller than the square of the order parameter itself. To derive the left side of the inequality from the expression involving the mean of the order parameter, it is crucial to recognize that the fluctuations, denoted as ##\delta m##, have a mean of zero due to their Gaussian distribution. This zero mean implies that terms like ##\langle \delta m \rangle \langle \delta m \rangle## vanish, simplifying the calculations. Additionally, since the order parameter ##m_{0}## minimizes the Helmholtz Free Energy, it follows that the expected value of the total magnetization ##\langle M \rangle## equals ##m_{0}##. Understanding these relationships is essential for grasping the derivation of the Ginzburg Criterion in the context of the Ising Model.
thatboi
Messages
130
Reaction score
20
For the Ising Model, the Ginzburg Criterion is, for ##m_{0}## the order parameter and ##\delta m## the fluctuations: $$\langle\delta m\left(x\right)\delta m\left(x^{\prime}\right)\rangle << m_{0}^{2}$$. I want to understand how to derive the left hand side of the inequality from ##\langle M^{2} \rangle - \langle M \rangle ^{2}## where ##M = m_{0} + \delta_{m}##. Just from plugging in, I'm not sure how most of the terms cancel out, or what the fate of a term like ##\langle \delta m\rangle \langle \delta m \rangle## is.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Ok, I think the best way of understanding that ##\langle \delta m \rangle = 0## is by calculating the probability associated with ##\delta m## i.e. calculating its Boltzmann weight and noticing that it is a Gaussian random variable with 0 mean. The other more physical way of arguing it is that we know ##m_{0}## is the value of the order parameter that minimizes the Helmholtz Free Energy so we expect ##\langle M \rangle = m_{0}##.
 
For the quantum state ##|l,m\rangle= |2,0\rangle## the z-component of angular momentum is zero and ##|L^2|=6 \hbar^2##. According to uncertainty it is impossible to determine the values of ##L_x, L_y, L_z## simultaneously. However, we know that ##L_x## and ## L_y##, like ##L_z##, get the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. In other words, for the state ##|2,0\rangle## we have ##\vec{L}=(L_x, L_y,0)## with ##L_x## and ## L_y## one of the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. But none of these...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K