I am basically just rewriting a question that was posted on other forums.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

While watching videos of a MIT lecture on the eigenstates of angular momentum (video: '16. Eigenstates of the Angular Momentum II' by MIT OpenCourseWare) the professor visualized different spherical harmonics for low values of the quantum number l. He showed that for Y(l = 1, m = 0) the function has the following form:

explaining that since m=0 there is no angular momentum L_z and the probability of finding it in the x-y plane is practically zero.

He then went on to show the Y(l=2, m=0) state, as seen below:

This strikes me as odd, however, as the disk around the z-axis would imply to me that there is a good probability that the particle is spinning along the z-axis and as a result carries some angular momentum L_z > 0. How, if at all possible, can this phenomenon be explained intuitively?

Thanks in advance

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# I Understanding the Form of the Y(2,0) Spherical Harmonic

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