Understanding the Simplification of Binomial Coefficients

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on simplifying binomial coefficients, specifically expressing (n over r) in terms of factorials. The correct formulation is established as (n over r) = (n-r+1)/r * (n over r-1). Participants clarify that r(r-1)! equals r! and that (n-(r-1))! simplifies to (n-r+1)!(n-r)!. This leads to the conclusion that the original expression can be accurately transformed into the standard binomial coefficient form n!/r!(n-r)!

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of binomial coefficients
  • Familiarity with factorial notation
  • Basic algebraic manipulation skills
  • Knowledge of combinatorial identities
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of binomial coefficients
  • Learn about combinatorial identities and their proofs
  • Explore advanced factorial simplifications
  • Investigate applications of binomial coefficients in probability theory
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Mathematicians, students studying combinatorics, educators teaching algebra, and anyone interested in the applications of binomial coefficients in mathematical proofs and problem-solving.

BMY61
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Here is the problem i am having trouble:

Expressing the binomial coefficients in terms of factorials and simplifying algebraically show that

(n over r) = (n-2+1)/r (n over r-1)

i got that equals ((n-r+1)/r) ((n!)/((r-1)!(n-(r-1))!)) but i am trying to get that to equal n!/r!(n-r)! which would bring me back to (n over r)

i am just getting confused on what to all do in between.
hope i did no confuse anyone
 
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BMY61 said:
Here is the problem i am having trouble:

Expressing the binomial coefficients in terms of factorials and simplifying algebraically show that

(n over r) = (n-2+1)/r (n over r-1)

i got that equals ((n-r+1)/r) ((n!)/((r-1)!(n-(r-1))!)) but i am trying to get that to equal n!/r!(n-r)! which would bring me back to (n over r)

i am just getting confused on what to all do in between.
hope i did no confuse anyone

I believe you have an error in the statement. The right hand side should read:
(n-r+1)/r (n over r-1). However, you seem to have the next statement correct.

To get the final result, note that r(r-1)! = r!
Also (n-(r-1))!=(n-r+1)!=(n-r+1)(n-r)!
 
ahh ok, thank you
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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