Math Amateur
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Let [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] denote the set of polynomials with rational coefficients and integer constant terms.
Prove that the only two units in [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] are 1 and -1.
Help with this exercise would be appreciated.
My initial thoughts on this exercise are as follows:
1 and -1 are the units of $$ \mathbb{Z} $$. Further the constant terms of the polynomials are from $$ \mathbb{Z} $$ and so I suspect the units of [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] are thus 1 and -1 - but this is not a rigorous proof - indeed it is extremely vague!
Can someone help with a rigorous formulation of these thoughts into a formal proof.
I suspect that such a proof would start as follows:
Units of [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] would be those p(x) and q(x) such that
p(x)q(x) = 1
can you just assert now that the only possible polynomials in [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] would be 1 and -1 - what reason would you give - is it obvious?
Hope someone can clarify.
Peter
[This exercise is also posted on MHF]
Prove that the only two units in [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] are 1 and -1.
Help with this exercise would be appreciated.
My initial thoughts on this exercise are as follows:
1 and -1 are the units of $$ \mathbb{Z} $$. Further the constant terms of the polynomials are from $$ \mathbb{Z} $$ and so I suspect the units of [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] are thus 1 and -1 - but this is not a rigorous proof - indeed it is extremely vague!
Can someone help with a rigorous formulation of these thoughts into a formal proof.
I suspect that such a proof would start as follows:
Units of [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] would be those p(x) and q(x) such that
p(x)q(x) = 1
can you just assert now that the only possible polynomials in [tex]\mathbb{Q}_\mathbb{Z}[x][/tex] would be 1 and -1 - what reason would you give - is it obvious?
Hope someone can clarify.
Peter
[This exercise is also posted on MHF]
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