Using sifting property to prove other properties

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the sifting property of the Dirac delta function and its implications for proving specific properties of the function. The sifting property states that the integral of a function multiplied by the delta function evaluates to the function's value at a specific point. Participants confirm that while the property -∞ δ(t) dt = 1 can be proven, the properties stating that δ(t) = 0 for t ≠ 0 and that δ(t) is undefined at t = 0 present challenges. The conversation highlights the need for a rigorous understanding of the delta function as a linear functional.

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Mathematicians, physicists, and engineering students who are working with the Dirac delta function, particularly in the context of signal processing and functional analysis.

Bipolarity
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Suppose you have the following definition of Dirac-delta function, or the so called sifting property:

[tex]\int^{d}_{c}f(t)δ(t-a)dt =\left\{\begin{array}{cc}f(a),&\mbox{ if }<br /> c\leq x \leq d\\0, & \mbox{ if } x>d \mbox{ or } x<c \\ \mbox{undefined}, & \mbox {if } x = d \mbox{ or } x = c \end{array}\right.[/tex]

Can I use this to prove the following?

[tex]\mbox{ 1) } δ(t) = 0 \ t ≠ 0[/tex]
[tex]\mbox{ 2) } δ(t) \mbox{ is undefined at } t = 0[/tex]
[tex]\mbox{ 3) } \int^{∞}_{-∞}δ(t)dt = 1[/tex]

I was able to prove property 3 but it seems not possible to prove the first two. But I am probably mistaken else my text would not use the sifting property to define this unit impulse function. Any ideas? Thanks!

BiP
 
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The delta function is rigorously defined as a linear functional on the vector space of all functions (which satisfy nice properties, e.g. continuous, decay quickly, etc.). If we started using that terminology would you be totally lost?

"Proving" that delta(0) is not a number is fairly simple in a naive way:
[tex]\int_{0}^{0} 1*\delta(t) dt = 1[/tex]
If delta(0) was a number then we would get the answer 0, not 1, so delta(0) can't be a number
 
I'm sorry Office I don't fully comprehend your proof. I don't understand why Dirac(0), if it were a number, would lead to a contradiction involving the integral in your post. My knowledge of Dirac delta is very sloppy, nor do I have any idea what a functional is. And any tips on how to prove property 1?

BiP
 

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