Sifting property of a Dirac delta inverse Mellin transformation

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EpselonZero said:
Since I have to verify that, I don't think I can use that right away. I see what you meant now.
However, if this is the thing I have to show it makes no sense to use it.
Exactly what are you supposed to verify?
Please state it once more.
 
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EpselonZero said:
Since I have to verify that, I don't think I can use that right away. I see what you meant now.
However, if this is the thing I have to show it makes no sense to use it.
I wouldn't say that I'm using the result I'm trying to show.
It's true that the two integrals follow from each other by a change of variable, but I guess that's the point of the exercise. I agree it's not a very good exercise.

I would also question that the integral you quote as the inverse Mellin transform of the delta function is actually that. This integral is clearly just another way of writing the integral representation of the delta function.
So to me it seems this integral is the delta function and not its Mellin transform.
In short the point of the exercise seems to be to show that the integral in question is the delta function and therefore it has the sifting property.
Unless, of course, you're supposed to verify the sifting property of the delta function, but that's a completely different problem and not what you stated in your original post.