Visibility of a specific waveleangth

[madhatter106]

Ok this is a simple question that has made it difficult to figure out. For a visible wavelength of light from a laser source, the beam is visible due to Rayleigh scattering. If the photon is wavelike in classical and macro states then wouldn't that prohibit the coherent nature of a laser beam? The scattering is going to at some point cause diffraction of the entire beam depending upon the density of the atmosphere it's in right? but if it's in a particle state would Rayleigh scattering still apply? is a laser beam a superposition of both states?

I'm assuming that the wavelike nature is equal in all vectors not 'sheet' like. Then with the polarization of the light shouldn't it no longer be visible unless your line of sight matched the polarized angle?

 

[azntoon]

The answer to your question is that the wavelike nature of light in classical and macro states does not prohibit the coherent nature of a laser beam. While Rayleigh scattering does cause diffraction of the beam, it does not break the coherence of the beam. The polarization of light does not make it invisible, as light is scattered in all directions regardless of its polarization. A laser beam is a superposition of both wavelike and particle-like states, but the wavelike nature dominates in the formation of the beam.