According to quantum mechanic postulates, something which has not been observed does not exist(or at least, it's some kind of stochastic wavefunction but it's not determined). Now, we apply this to our physical laws. I guess the beginning of quantum theory was Planck's explanation of the spectrum of a black body. But does this means that before anyone measured the spectrum of a black body(or an aproximation because a black body doesnt exist of course) the spectrum wasn't defined so all of the laws derived from it also didn't exist. Does this mean that quantum physics only exists for slightly more than a century, since it didn't exist before it was observed? (Or just to be sure in case some ancient greek observed a phenomenon that can only be explained with QM, there was no quantum physics before planet earth existed) But if we look at distant galaxies, that light is already emitted long before earth existed. But still we can examine the spectrum of the light en determine of which elements they are made of, using theory of discrete energy levels in the atoms. Maybe there was some kind of entanglement which made the light behave in a quantum way before it arrived earth. Or if it's not entanglement someone else must have let the laws collapse in their known quantum way, so this prooves that aliens exist or have existed. But the problem is, if quantum physics didn't exist before they were observed, they also didn't exist during the big bang, and i believe the calculations of the beginning of the universe use quantum mechanics. So, they are wrong or somehow the collapse of the quantum laws when observed must have sent a signal back in time which made they have always existed. Ok, probably your first reaction is that I'm telling [censored brown smelly thing that comes out of the backside of a male cow], but what do you think of this thought experiment? And why am I wrong?