What does time mean at t=1/infinity?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter KyleStreet
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Mean Time
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
8 replies · 4K views
KyleStreet
Messages
9
Reaction score
0
I have a question, please correct me in detail if I'm wrong with my conclusion. I am no expert in physics. I do however, have a certain understanding of Trigonometry and some integrals and some derivatives Calculus 1.

If you start at t=0 (the origin of the Universe) and if that is considered to be the present, does that mean that the present (at that time) requires a past and future equally by 1 divided by infinity and/or above? This problem has made me scratch my head for a while. My conclusion was that time had to start at either t=1/infinity or undefined.

Any form of math besides physics to "fix up" my understanding would be greatly appreciated.



Kyle Street
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Okay, to clear things up I meant that for every present time that exists, there is a past and a future. So if you start at t=0, will there also be a past for t=0 if all other times have a past and future? Let's consider t approaching infinity.
 
Oh I forgot to mention that t=0 is before the Planck Time and that the past and future are equally spread out as a v-shape
 
KyleStreet said:
Oh I forgot to mention that t=0 is before the Planck Time and that the past and future are equally spread out as a v-shape

You're speaking nonsense.
 
It reminds me of lorentz transformation of time when time interval is 1 and spatial interval is zero which is the time dilation while traveling at speed of light.
 
That would be about correct - the bit starting with "all times have to have a past and a future" sounded promising but the following post muddied things completely.

There is an old philosophical argument you still see in creationist circles that time could not have had a beginning because every moment has a past ... or: for time to begin would need divine intervention. Similarly for time to end.

Still muddled thinking because you cannot have a "start" to time, because there would be no time for time to start in. But OP reminded me of this since his own statements suffer the same sorts of problems: how can time itself start at a particular time? This is what happens when you try to generalize common-sense(-ish) ideas to the Universe.

This is why space-time is so useful: it's all geometry.