What Happens When a Function is Convolved with a Gaussian PDF?

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The discussion centers on the convolution of a function with a Gaussian probability density function (PDF), specifically represented by the equation f(x) = ∫ f(t) g(t-x) dt, where g(z) = e^{-z^2/2}. It concludes that convolving any function with a Gaussian results in the same function, leading to the Fourier transform relationship F[f(x)] = F[f(x) ∗ g(x)] = F[f(x)] · F[g(x)], which simplifies to 1 = F[g(x)] = e^{-w^2/2}. The conversation also explores the implications of this relationship as an eigenvalue problem, suggesting that the only solution is f(x) = 0.

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exmachina
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I've arrived at the following equation involving the convolution of two functions:

<br /> f(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(t) g(t-x) dt = f(x) \ast g(x)<br />

Where:

<br /> g(z) = e^{-z^2/2}<br />

In other words, a function convoluted with a Gaussian pdf results in the same function.

I've tried taking Fourier transforms, realizing that the FT of a gaussian results in another Gaussian:

<br /> F[f(x)] = F[f(x) \ast g(x)] = F[f(x)] \cdot F[g(x)]<br />

But this results in the F[f(x)] cancelling out, leaving me with just:

<br /> 1 = F[g(x)] = e^{-w^2/2} <br />

Any suggestions?
 
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What if f=0?
 
Yes that is the trivial solution.

Perhaps this can be casted as an eigenvalue problem - as it seems to imply that the convolution operator (wrt to the gaussian) may have certain eigenvalues and corresponding eigenfunctions f(x) being one of them
 
edit - doh - this obviously implies that f(x) must be equal to 0 (no other solution satisfies:

f(x)=f(x)g(x) unless g(x) = 1, which in this case, it isn't)
 

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