maverick280857
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Hi
Short question: What is the generalization of the BAC-CAB rule for operators?
Longer question and context: please read below
I was reading Schiff's book on Quantum Mechanics (3rd Edition) and on page 236, he has defined a generalized Runge-Lunz vector for a central force as
\vec{M} = \frac{1}{2\mu}(\vec{p} \times \vec{L} - \vec{L} \times \vec{p}) - \frac{k}{r}\vec{r}
Here, \mu is the reduced mass, \vec{p} is the momentum operator, \vec{L} is the angular momentum operator and \vec{r} is the position operator. k is a scalar constant.
I was trying to prove the following identities, which are also listed on the same page:
[\vec{M}, H] = 0
\vec{L} \bullet \vec{M} = \vec{M} \bullet \vec{L} = 0
\vec{M}^2 = \frac{2H}{\mu}(\vec{L}^2 + \hbar^2) + k^2
In trying to prove the first one, i.e. [\vec{M}, H] = 0, I come across terms of the form:
(\vec{p} \times \vec{L})\vec{p}^2[/itex]<br /> <br /> Now, the term in brackets can be written as<br /> <br /> \vec{p} \times (\vec{r} \times \vec{p})<br /> <br /> If these were normal vectors, this would be easy:<br /> <br /> \vec{A} \times (\vec{B} \times \vec{C}) = \vec{B}(\vec{A} \bullet \vec{C}) - \vec{C}(\vec{A} \bullet \vec{B})<br /> <br /> In the case of vectors, due to commutativity of the dot product we could write<br /> <br /> \vec{A} \times (\vec{B} \times \vec{C}) = \vec{B}(\vec{C} \bullet \vec{A}) - \vec{C}(\vec{B} \bullet \vec{A})<br /> <br /> but this isn't valid if A, B, C are operators. It seems that the only way to find \vec{p} \times \vec{L} is to express them both in cartesian coordinates, take the cross product the "usual" way and simplify everything.<br /> <br /> I have two questions:<br /> <br /> 1. What is the generalization of the vector triple product to triple products of vectors operators?<br /> <br /> 2. Is there a more efficient way of computing terms like \vec{p} \times \vec{L}?<br /> <br /> Thanks in advance.<br /> -Vivek.
Short question: What is the generalization of the BAC-CAB rule for operators?
Longer question and context: please read below
I was reading Schiff's book on Quantum Mechanics (3rd Edition) and on page 236, he has defined a generalized Runge-Lunz vector for a central force as
\vec{M} = \frac{1}{2\mu}(\vec{p} \times \vec{L} - \vec{L} \times \vec{p}) - \frac{k}{r}\vec{r}
Here, \mu is the reduced mass, \vec{p} is the momentum operator, \vec{L} is the angular momentum operator and \vec{r} is the position operator. k is a scalar constant.
I was trying to prove the following identities, which are also listed on the same page:
[\vec{M}, H] = 0
\vec{L} \bullet \vec{M} = \vec{M} \bullet \vec{L} = 0
\vec{M}^2 = \frac{2H}{\mu}(\vec{L}^2 + \hbar^2) + k^2
In trying to prove the first one, i.e. [\vec{M}, H] = 0, I come across terms of the form:
(\vec{p} \times \vec{L})\vec{p}^2[/itex]<br /> <br /> Now, the term in brackets can be written as<br /> <br /> \vec{p} \times (\vec{r} \times \vec{p})<br /> <br /> If these were normal vectors, this would be easy:<br /> <br /> \vec{A} \times (\vec{B} \times \vec{C}) = \vec{B}(\vec{A} \bullet \vec{C}) - \vec{C}(\vec{A} \bullet \vec{B})<br /> <br /> In the case of vectors, due to commutativity of the dot product we could write<br /> <br /> \vec{A} \times (\vec{B} \times \vec{C}) = \vec{B}(\vec{C} \bullet \vec{A}) - \vec{C}(\vec{B} \bullet \vec{A})<br /> <br /> but this isn't valid if A, B, C are operators. It seems that the only way to find \vec{p} \times \vec{L} is to express them both in cartesian coordinates, take the cross product the "usual" way and simplify everything.<br /> <br /> I have two questions:<br /> <br /> 1. What is the generalization of the vector triple product to triple products of vectors operators?<br /> <br /> 2. Is there a more efficient way of computing terms like \vec{p} \times \vec{L}?<br /> <br /> Thanks in advance.<br /> -Vivek.