What is the Unclear Step in this Random Sampling Proof?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on a proof related to random sampling, specifically examining the transition between two mathematical expressions involving binomial coefficients and probabilities. The key point is that the second expression reduces the summation index from m to m-1, effectively excluding the term where d equals m, which results in a zero contribution due to the (m-d)/m factor. This step is justified as it simplifies the proof without altering the overall outcome of the summation.

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Mathematicians, statisticians, and students studying probability theory or combinatorial mathematics will benefit from this discussion, particularly those interested in the nuances of random sampling proofs.

rwinston
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Hi

I may be missing something obvious here, but I am reading a paper on random sampling, and in one of the proofs, two consecutive steps run like this:

[tex] = \sum_{d=0}^m \left[ {{m}\choose{d}} \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^d \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^{m-d} \right] \left( \frac{m-d}{m}\right)[/tex]
[tex] = \sum_{d=0}^{m-1} {{m}\choose{d}} \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^d \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^{m-d} \ \left( \frac{m-d}{m}\right)[/tex]

I can't see how the second step works ... the summation index is decreased by one, but nothing obvious changes inside the summation...is there an assumption or step i am missing? Any help appreciated!
 
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The (m-d)/m term is in the summation right? At d=m, that term will become 0, and so d=m doesn't contribute to the sum.
 

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