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What's the interval between photons in stimulated emission?
In stimulated emission one photon induces the emission of a second photon whose coherence length, energy, polarisation and direction of travel are all identical to its own. There must be a delay between the two photons, see below, so would anyone care to speculate on the magnitude of the time interval between the emission of the two photons?
Starting with an electron orbiting a molecule in its unexcited or ground state. If a photon is absorbed by a dipole between that electron and a nucleus and the photon does not posses sufficient energy to promote the electron to an electrically excited state the energy is rapidly re-emitted as a photon, Rayleigh scattering: this is the phenomenon that gives rise to transparent media exhibiting a refractive index. If a second photon arrives at the dipole and it is also absorbed before the first one has been re-emitted and their combined energies are sufficient to promote the electron to an electrically excited state, that is what occurs: second harmonic or two-photon excitation, also known as frequency doubling. This demonstrates that if the interval between two identical photons arriving at dipole is sufficiently short their effects are indistinguishable from the actions of a single photon that posses twice their energy: the relative polarisation of the photons can be ignored because with stimulated emission this is identical. Consequently if, in addition to identical directions of travel, the pair of photons produced by the process of stimulated emission also possessed instantaneously identical loci they would often, if not always, behave like a single photon with twice the energy. Now the amplification part of the acronym 'laser' is the product of stimulated emission, most laser emission is notoriously monochromatic and certainly does not behave as if it were frequency doubled. Thus the two photons generated by stimulated emission must occupy different loci and consequentially there must be delay between them.
I confess, I'm a biologist and light microscopist and don't posses the mathematical skills to even follow vector calculus, let alone QED, but nevertheless I would like to know the answer to the above question or at least where the flaw in the logic that suggests the question can be posed is.
In stimulated emission one photon induces the emission of a second photon whose coherence length, energy, polarisation and direction of travel are all identical to its own. There must be a delay between the two photons, see below, so would anyone care to speculate on the magnitude of the time interval between the emission of the two photons?
Starting with an electron orbiting a molecule in its unexcited or ground state. If a photon is absorbed by a dipole between that electron and a nucleus and the photon does not posses sufficient energy to promote the electron to an electrically excited state the energy is rapidly re-emitted as a photon, Rayleigh scattering: this is the phenomenon that gives rise to transparent media exhibiting a refractive index. If a second photon arrives at the dipole and it is also absorbed before the first one has been re-emitted and their combined energies are sufficient to promote the electron to an electrically excited state, that is what occurs: second harmonic or two-photon excitation, also known as frequency doubling. This demonstrates that if the interval between two identical photons arriving at dipole is sufficiently short their effects are indistinguishable from the actions of a single photon that posses twice their energy: the relative polarisation of the photons can be ignored because with stimulated emission this is identical. Consequently if, in addition to identical directions of travel, the pair of photons produced by the process of stimulated emission also possessed instantaneously identical loci they would often, if not always, behave like a single photon with twice the energy. Now the amplification part of the acronym 'laser' is the product of stimulated emission, most laser emission is notoriously monochromatic and certainly does not behave as if it were frequency doubled. Thus the two photons generated by stimulated emission must occupy different loci and consequentially there must be delay between them.
I confess, I'm a biologist and light microscopist and don't posses the mathematical skills to even follow vector calculus, let alone QED, but nevertheless I would like to know the answer to the above question or at least where the flaw in the logic that suggests the question can be posed is.