Thanks very much for these clarifications about the situation in QM, but what I'm wondering is a bit more general. What I'm wondering is whether it is a peculiarity of quantum mechanics that we can represent the values that physical systems have for various properties this way, or rather whether it's something that we can expect to be true of physical systems represented in theories quite generally. Is it the case, for example, that if we wanted we could represent the angular momentum or energy of a classical system using eigenvalue equations (even if we don't usually write them that way)? Or may we expect that, if X is a scalar-valued observable quantity of a system a that obeys an as-yet unknown theory that supplants quantum mechanics, then we should be able to write Xa =xa for some scalar x?
Basically what I'm wondering is whether the applicability of eigenvalue equations in physics is a peculiarity of QM, or a feature that we should expect to crop up in theories of physics quite generally. Any thoughts (or references) would be much appreciated!