When is the norm of a state equal to 1?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter dEdt
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Norm State
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the conditions under which the norm of a quantum state is equal to 1, exploring the implications of normalization in quantum mechanics, particularly in relation to state vectors and eigenstates. The scope includes theoretical considerations and conceptual clarifications regarding quantum states and their representations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that while quantum mechanical vectors are typically considered unit vectors, there are instances, such as , where this is not the case, raising questions about the conditions for norm equality.
  • One participant argues that the normalization to unit vectors is essential for the probabilistic interpretation of quantum mechanics, suggesting that non-normalized states should not be encountered in physical contexts.
  • Another participant clarifies that |a> may not refer to a quantum state but rather a generalized ket, indicating that the discrepancy arises from different contexts in which these terms are used.
  • A detailed explanation is provided regarding the necessity of normalization for the wavefunction, emphasizing that while the eigenstates |ai> may not be normalized, the overall state |psi> must be normalized, leading to a discussion on the implications of linear combinations of eigenstates.
  • It is suggested that normalized eigenstates are often presented in textbooks for convenience, despite the practical challenges in achieving normalization for all eigenstates.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the normalization of quantum states, with some asserting the necessity of unit norm for physical states while others highlight the complexities and exceptions related to eigenstates. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of these differing perspectives.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the potential ambiguity in definitions of states and the conditions under which normalization applies, as well as the unresolved nature of the mathematical steps involved in transitioning between normalized and non-normalized states.

dEdt
Messages
286
Reaction score
2
My textbook says that all physical vectors in the quantum mechanical vector space are unit vectors. But elsewhere, there are quantities like <a|a> which are not assumed to be equal to 1. Why the discrepancy, and under what situations does a state have/not have norm 1?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Normally, you should not encounter <a|a>, unless there's no reference to physics. QM is built on the normalization to unit for a state vector. It gives a simpler/nicer path to its probabilistic interpretation.
 
dEdt said:
My textbook says that all physical vectors in the quantum mechanical vector space are unit vectors. But elsewhere, there are quantities like <a|a> which are not assumed to be equal to 1. Why the discrepancy, and under what situations does a state have/not have norm 1?

The discrepancy is resolved by noting that |a> does not refer to a quantum state. Strictly speaking, it is not even a ket, but rather a generalized ket!

(I assume |a> is referring to a position eigen"state")
 
Just recall why do we need the wavefunction is normalized. ===> we need the wavefunction of the system be normalized because we know that the particle must be somewhere, so <psi|psi> = 1, ( equivalently, probability over all space is 1 ) .
However, we know that any state |psi can be expresseed in linear combination of the stationary state ( the eigen vectors of the harmiltonian of the system ) ,
|psi> = |a1> + |a2> +...|an> ( for simplicity, let's consider there are finite number of eigenvector)
the |ai> is the solution of the time independent Schrödinger equation, they live in the Hilbert space.
Here comes the point, these |ai> is not normalized ( <ai|ai> = 1) but normalizable (<ai|ai> < infinite)
the explanation is the following,
if |ai> is normalized, then the |psi> cannot be normalized. however, |psi> MUST BE normalized. then |ai> can not be normalzied.
therefore, the condition for the |ai> is loose, we only restrict them to be finite.
In summary, state of the system |psi> , the one representing the particle, MUST BE normalized. while for the eigenstate of the system, the one representing stationary state, is not necessary normalized. However, for convenience, you can always find in textbook where the eigenstate is normalized, but as we see that this is impossible, therefore, if we are using normalized eigenstate, we don't write
|psi> = |a1> + |a2> +...|an>
but
|psi> = A1|a1> + A2|a2> +...+An|an>
to ensure the |psi> is normalized.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K