swerdna said:
I understand that nothing can be said to be actual stationary and in fact I don’t see that it can be known or even assumed that a stationary state actually exists. That a thing can’t move relative to itself and that some things don’t move relative to other things doesn’t mean that anything is ever actually stationary. Acceleration is a change of a thing’s speed and/or direction but it can’t be correctly define that the change is either an actual increase or decrease in speed. The only lasting effect of acceleration is how a thing moves relative to other things. When a thing isn’t accelerating it can’t be correctly defined as being either stationary or moving.
I think you are still mixing up the notions of "actual" motion with "absolute" motion.
Objects most certainly CAN be stationary, or moving. It is simply that movement is always quantified in relation to some chosen reference. If you pick a different reference point, you get different velocities, but they are no less real for that.
You seem to think that because the measure of velocity depends on the frame of reference, that it all becomes entirely arbitrary and unreal. That's misleading. Any particle has a trajectory through spacetime, and this defines unambiguously a definite and real velocity for a given frame of reference.
As I understand Relativity it says that non-accelerating things that don’t move relative to each other are in a particular inertial frame. […]
You can omit "that don't move relative to each other".
All non-accelerating particles have an associated inertial frame within which they are stationary. Such particles DO move relative to other particles, with an unambiguous real relative velocity. The "relative velocity" of one particle to another means the velocity of the first particle in the reference frame of the second particle. It's real, and well defined.
[…] Other non-accelerating things that do move relative to the things in this particular inertial frame are in different particular inertial frames. Acceleration takes a thing from one frame to another and a thing can only be in one particular frame at a particular time.[…]
Yes. Exactly so.
[…] If a thing accelerates from one frame to another then back to the original it will be time dilated compared to all things that remained in that frame. […]
Misleading. You don't need accelerations at all. Any particle moving in relation to another particle is time dilated with respect to that particle. Even with unaccelerated motions. But the time dilation, like the velocity, is relative to a particular observer.
The issue of acceleration, or change of reference frame, only arises because some people find it paradoxical that A is time dilated with respect to B, and that B is also time dilated with respect to A. They want to know which one is "really" time dilated.
The answer is that time dilation is not absolute, but relative. The two particles are really moving relative to each other, and each particle is really stationary in its own reference frame. Similarly, each particle is undilated in its own reference frame, and each particle runs more slowly in the reference from of the other.
So people try to get a paradox, by having one particle turn around and come back so that they can compare clocks. Problem is, you can't do that without a third reference frame.
(Addendum. Once two particles are together again at the same place and time, there is a definite and unambiguous elapsed time experienced by each particle since they were previously synchronized. This is called the "proper time" of the particle, and it can be calculated from their respective trajectories through spacetime. This "experienced time" of a particle is not dependent on an observer. It's real. It can be calculated and has only one possible answer.)
It seems that it doesn’t matter what particular frame the accelerating thing started in or how many different frames it experiences it will always be time dilated when it returns to the original frame and never time increased. Relativity seems to give preferred importance to the original frame and I can’t understand any reason why it’s justified in doing this.
This is not a preference for one specific reference frame, but a general rule about moving in a straight line.
The shortest distance between two points is a straight line. If you have two particles together at time t
0, and then back together at time t
1, AND if particle A has remained inertial the whole time, then when you look at their motions in ANY reference frame you like, particle A has moved in a straight line, and particle B… hasn't.
Therefore, particle B has traveled a greater distance than A, considered in any frame you like. Therefore B has a greater average velocity, when considered in any inertial reference frame you like. Therefore B will be older when the two twins are together again.
Unambiguously. The age difference is a real age difference, with a definite value, that can be calculated in any reference frame at all, using special relativity.
I'm skipping a bit here…
If the turn around is so important in the twins paradox (that's not a paradox) what would happen in the following scenario that doesn’t have a turn around?
Clock A and clock B share the same inertial frame (frame 1) but are a great distance apart. At the exact mid-point between the clocks (also in frame 1) there is a thing that emit’s a light pulse every second. The clocks tick every time they receive a light pulse so both clocks are synchronised and always show the same time. Also in frame 1 with clock A there is Clock C that ticks every second by some independent onboard means. All clocks are synchronised and show the same time. Clock C accelerates way from clock A and toward clock B in frame 2 until it reaches clock B. It accelerates again to be positioned with clock B in frame 1. Clock C went from frame 1 to frame 2 then back to frame1 without turning around. Clock C then compares it’s time with clock B which always shows the same time as clock A. Essentially clock C is also comparing it’s time with clock A regardless that it's a great distance away. According to Relativity wouldn’t clock C be time dilated compared to the other two clocks without having to have turned around?
If A and B share the same reference frame, then they have no relative motion with each other.
As soon as C is moving relative A and B it becomes time dilated with respect to A and B and the central clock, but the rate at which it receives ticks from the central clock is not a measure of its own time dilation at all. When directly approaching the clock, it gets the ticks more rapidly. When receding at the same speed, it gets them less rapidly. The time dilation, however, is the same in each case. But this much is definitely true. If C starts out from the middle, and moves around for a while at high speed and then comes back to the middle again, then C will have received pulses, on average, faster than the stationary clock was emitting them.
Cheers -- sylas