Why can't rho^o decay into two pi^o?

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The decay of the rho meson (\(\rho^0\)) into two neutral pions (\(\pi^0\pi^0\)) is forbidden due to conservation of angular momentum and the properties of isospin. The Clebsch-Gordon coefficients indicate that the state \(|10\rangle\) has a coefficient of zero, preventing the formation of a J=1 state from two \(\pi^0\) particles. Although isospin is conserved, the requirement for the total wavefunction to be symmetric under Bose statistics further prohibits this decay. The decay into \(\pi^0\pi^0\gamma\) is allowed but suppressed, with a relative probability of 4.5 x 10^-5% in the context of broken isospin symmetry.

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As title, why does the following decay is forbidden?
\rho<sup>0</sup>\rightarrow\pi<sup>0</sup>\pi<sup>0</sup>
 
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Isospin. Take a look at the Clebsch-Gordon coefficient table.
 
Vanadium 50 said:
Isospin. Take a look at the Clebsch-Gordon coefficient table.

Thank you. You are correct. I look at the CG 1x1 table.
|10> = (1/2)|11>|1-1>-(1/2)|-11>|11>. The coefficient of |10>|10> is zero!

But why is that physically? The isospin is still conserved for |10>|10> case.
 
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brainschen said:
But why is that physically?

What kind of answer are you looking for? Why are there Clebsch-Gordon coefficients at all? Why does isospin use the same Clebsch-Gordon coefficients as angular momentum? Why is there isospin at all? I don't know how to answer you.
 
You can also use Bose statistics and conservation of angular momentum.
The rho has spin one. There is no pi0-pi0 state with J=1.
 
Hello,
I don't understand why pi0-pi0 can't have J=1.
I thought (probably wrong) that they could have some relative angular momentum L for example L=1 so that then pi0-pi0 would have J=1.

Maybe it's trivial but could someone please explain me why that isn't possible :)

Thank you!
 
Vanadium 50 said:
What kind of answer are you looking for? Why are there Clebsch-Gordon coefficients at all? Why does isospin use the same Clebsch-Gordon coefficients as angular momentum? Why is there isospin at all? I don't know how to answer you.

Isn't isospin conservation just a manifestation of nucleon SU(2) invariance of the Hamiltonian?
 
If you put it in a J=1 state the total wavefunction is antisymmetric, and it has to be symmetric because of Bose statistics.

JDStokes, yes, isospin is SU(2). Which is why you use the Clebsch-Gordon coefficients as opposed to something else.
 
It is important to note that Ispin symmetry is broken, while Bose statistics and conservation of angular momentum are not.
 
  • #10
It can't decay into pi0 pi0 because of conservation of angular momentum.

It can decay into pi0 pi0 gamma. In a world with unbroken isospin symmetry, that decay would also be prohibited (because rho0 is symmetric under u-d interchange, and pi0's are antisymmetric). In our world, it's merely suppressed. Relative probability of this decay is 4.5 * 10^-5 %.
 
  • #11
hamster143 said:
It can't decay into pi0 pi0 because of conservation of angular momentum.

It can decay into pi0 pi0 gamma. In a world with unbroken isospin symmetry, that decay would also be prohibited (because rho0 is symmetric under u-d interchange, and pi0's are antisymmetric). In our world, it's merely suppressed. Relative probability of this decay is 4.5 * 10^-5 %.
1. You also need Bose statistics for the pi0s.
2. Once there is a gamma, Ispin is irrelevant.
2. The rho is u-ubar. It has C=-, but no symmetry property.
 
  • #12
1. Gamma is isospin invariant. u and d quarks couple to the gamma with different strength, because isospin is not a perfect symmetry.

2. Rho is (u\bar{u} - d\bar{d})/\sqrt{2}.
 
  • #13
hamster143 said:
Rho is (u\bar{u} - d\bar{d})/\sqrt{2}.
If there is a difference between (u\bar{u} - d\bar{d})/\sqrt{2} and u\bar{u}, it must break isospin ! This is why (I think) you miss clem's point.
 
  • #14
:confused:

We're located in different points on the surface of the Earth, but that does not mean that rotational symmetry of the Earth is broken. (u\bar{u} - d\bar{d})/\sqrt{2} and u\bar{u} are degenerate and there is a symmetry transformation that takes one into the other, but that does not mean that they are the same state.
 
  • #15
I know the rho is not simply u-ubar. I just gave a simple example to show that symmetry didn't enter.
 
  • #16
hamster143 said:
(u\bar{u} - d\bar{d})/\sqrt{2} and u\bar{u} are degenerate and there is a symmetry transformation that takes one into the other, but that does not mean that they are the same state.
Sure, I think we agree. The states would be impossible to distinguish IF isospin were exact. Of course, the proton and the neutron have different interactions with the photon :smile:
 
  • #17
I am confused by the last few posts. u-ubar is not an Ispin eigenstate.
The combination (u\bar{u} - d\bar{d})/\sqrt{2} is.
 
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