aznluster
- 5
- 0
The two functions cos(pi +x) and -cos(x) are the same yet their graphs are different. Why is that?
Why do cos(π + x) and -cos(x) have the same values but different graphs?
- Context: High School
- Thread starter aznluster
- Start date
-
- Tags
- Difference
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
3 replies · 2K views
Discussion
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Gold Member
- 5,706
- 1,592
How are their graphs different?
Mentor
- 38,146
- 10,751
And if there graphs were different, how could the two functions be the same?
Homework Helper
Education Advisor
Gold Member
- 7,774
- 2,194
Cosine is cyclic. Every 2*pi revolutions of a unit vector brings the value back to the same value.
Similar threads
Why does the integral of e^(cos x) have no closed form?
- chwala
- · Replies 11 ·
- Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
- Replies
- 11
Undergrad Why do 4-(1/x)-(2/x^2)=0 and 4x^2-x-2=0 have different graphs?
- Curd
- · Replies 3 ·
- General Math
- Replies
- 3
Why do stationary accelerometers read different values in different orientations?
- czechman45
- · Replies 3 ·
- Mechanical Engineering
- Replies
- 3