Why does the timelike vector in an orthonormal tetrad have -1?

Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
1 reply · 2K views
Junjie
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
I am a bit confused at "orthonormal tetrad" in General Relativity...

I think orthonormal tetrad should be a set of vectors like

e0= (1,0,0,0)
e1= (0,1,0,0)
e2= (0,0,1,0)
e3= (0,0,0,1)


However, in my book, it is written as

e0= (-1,0,0,0)
e1= (0,1,0,0)
e2= (0,0,1,0)
e3= (0,0,0,1)



I am not sure which one is right, and why it is right. My roomate think both are right, which makes me even more confused.
 
Physics news on Phys.org


Your second tetrad is obtained from your first by reflecting e0. Both are correct. You could say that one set is right-handed and the other set is left-handed (if you had four-dimensional hands)