Why doesn't my method for finding electric flux through a cube work?

  • Thread starter Thread starter latentcorpse
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Electrostatics
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
5 replies · 2K views
latentcorpse
Messages
1,411
Reaction score
0
A point charge Q is placed at the centre of a cube. What is the electric flux through each face of the cube.

ok so the answer is to say that since the cube is a closed surface, Gauss' Law tells us that the total flux through the cube is [itex]\frac{Q}{\epsilon_0}[/itex] and then from symmetry 1/6 of that is through each face. so the final answer is [itex]\Phi=\frac{Q}{\epsilon_0}[/itex].

I was wondering why i don't get the same answer when i do it this way:

set it up with cartesian coordinates. let's find the flux through the face with outward normal [itex]\vec{e_x}[/itex].

[itex]\vec{E}=\frac{Q}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 (\frac{a}{4})^2} \vec{r}[/itex]

now [itex]\vec{r}=(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}},\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}},\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}},)[/itex] and [itex]\vec{e_x}=(1,0,0)[/itex]
so [itex]\Phi=\int_S \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dA} = \frac{Q}{\pi \epsilon_0 a^2} \vec{r} \cdot \vec{e_x} \int_S dA = \frac{Q}{\pi \epsilon_0 a^2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} a^2[/itex]

which ends up as [itex]\Phi=\frac{Q}{\sqrt{3} \pi \epsilon_0}[/itex]

obviously the first way is much easier but surely it should be possible both ways?
 
Physics news on Phys.org


ok yeah so i see now that its not a constant a/2 from each surface

what is [itex]\hat{\mathbf{r}}[/itex] then (i really should know this!)

is it possible to do this problem this way or is gauss' law the only way?
 


latentcorpse said:
ok yeah so i see now that its not a constant a/2 from each surface

what is [itex]\hat{\mathbf{r}}[/itex] then (i really should know this!)
The vector (x,y,z) points in the same direction as r^, everywhere. Normalize that vector, and you'll have r^.

is it possible to do this problem this way or is gauss' law the only way?
It should be possible, just not necessarily easy.
 


yeah so [itex]({x \over |x|},{y \over |y|},{z \over |z|})[/itex]

why doesn't the one i wrote earlier work though?
 


latentcorpse said:
yeah so [itex]({x \over |x|},{y \over |y|},{z \over |z|})[/itex]

Not quite, that vector just has components (±1,±1,±1). Try dividing by |r| instead of |x|, |y|, and |z|.

why doesn't the one i wrote earlier work though?
Not sure if this will help, but: the integral you're trying to do contains an r-hat term. What you wrote earlier is not equal to r-hat, therefore using it will give a wrong answer when you do the integral. (Or did I misunderstand your question here?)