Why is amorphous glass more transparent than crystalline materials?

[Raze2dust]

well if free electrons are the fundamental cause of reflection, how do you explain total internal reflection from glass?

 

[pinestone]

well if free electrons are the fundamental cause of reflection, how do you explain total internal reflection from glass?

Once you increase the angle of incidence above the critical angle, total internal reflection will be the result.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_internal_reflection#Critical_angle

 

[n0_3sc]

light is NEVER totally internally reflected. Even after the critical angle, there still exists a beam propagating along the surface (eg. the evanescent wave - which is another philosophical issue...)

 

[Raze2dust]

but that's applicable to metals too..
leave it what i meant was just that free electron theory alone is not sufficient to explain reflection from all surfaces

 

[n0_3sc]

but that's applicable to metals too..
leave it what i meant was just that free electron theory alone is not sufficient to explain reflection from all surfaces

I agree.

 

[rewebster]

To me, asking, "Why is glass 'see-through'? " is the same as asking, "Why is 'air' 'see-through'? ".

 

[n0_3sc]

To me, asking, "Why is glass 'see-through'? " is the same as asking, "Why is 'air' 'see-through'? ".

sure...because air and glass have the same material structure...
My intention of this thread was to understand how light interacts with amorphous glass upon propagation.