Why is the cusp not a submanifold?
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jostpuur
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According to my notes the embedding is defined like this:
Let M and N be differentiable manifolds, and [tex]f:M\to N[/tex] a smooth ([tex]C^{\infty}[/tex]) mapping. If for all [tex]p\in M[/tex] the tangent space mapping [tex]f_{*p}:T_p(M)\to T_{f(p)}(N)[/tex] is injective, and [tex]f:M\to f(M)[/tex] is a homeomorphism when [tex]f(M)[/tex] has the induced topology from N, then [tex]f[/tex] is an embedding of M in N.
If we set the natural differentiable structures on [tex]\mathbb{R}[/tex] and [tex]\mathbb{R}^2[/tex], then a mapping
[tex]f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^2,\quad\quad f(x)=(x, (x^2)^{1/3})[/tex]
is not an embedding, because it is not smooth at origo.
Let M and N be differentiable manifolds, and [tex]f:M\to N[/tex] a smooth ([tex]C^{\infty}[/tex]) mapping. If for all [tex]p\in M[/tex] the tangent space mapping [tex]f_{*p}:T_p(M)\to T_{f(p)}(N)[/tex] is injective, and [tex]f:M\to f(M)[/tex] is a homeomorphism when [tex]f(M)[/tex] has the induced topology from N, then [tex]f[/tex] is an embedding of M in N.
If we set the natural differentiable structures on [tex]\mathbb{R}[/tex] and [tex]\mathbb{R}^2[/tex], then a mapping
[tex]f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^2,\quad\quad f(x)=(x, (x^2)^{1/3})[/tex]
is not an embedding, because it is not smooth at origo.
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True, but an embedded submanifold is by definition (or characterisation) the image of a smooth embedding. Couldn't there be a pair (M, f) other than M=R and f given in your post such that f(M) = the cusp, and such that f is an smooth embedding?
jostpuur
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So is the real question this: We give [tex]\mathbb{R}^2[/tex] the natural differentiable structure, define [tex]f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^2[/tex] like in my post, and ask that does this mapping somehow induce a differentiable structure on [tex]\mathbb{R}[/tex] so that [tex]f[/tex] becomes smooth?
Or perhaps the question is, that why cannot this [tex]f[/tex] induce differentiable structure in such way, assuming that the book's claim is right?
Or perhaps the question is, that why cannot this [tex]f[/tex] induce differentiable structure in such way, assuming that the book's claim is right?
jostpuur
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Isn't the content of the posts #4 and #5 the same?
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mathwonk said:every line through the origin of that set has intersection number ≥ 2 with the set. for a manifold, the generic intersection number will be one.
Well, the cusp is a smooth manifold, with smooth atlas consisting of the unique chart "projection onto the x coordinate".
jostpuur said:Isn't the content of the posts #4 and #5 the same?
Well, it seems to me that the question in post #5 is more general than any of the 2 questions of post #4. Or perhaps they are equivalent?
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