Why is x^2 not bijective when defined with a domain including 0?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter hangover
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function Inverse
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of the function \( f(x) = x^2 \) and its bijectiveness when defined over a domain that includes zero. Participants explore the conditions under which a function can have an inverse and whether \( x^2 \) can be considered bijective in certain intervals.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that a function must be bijective to have an inverse, while others suggest that a function can be locally bijective within specific intervals.
  • It is noted that \( f(x) = x^2 \) is not bijective in any interval containing \( x = 0 \) due to the derivative being zero at that point, indicating a lack of strict monotonicity.
  • Participants discuss that while \( x^2 \) is not bijective over a domain including zero, it can be bijective if restricted to \( x > 0 \) or \( x < 0 \), with corresponding inverses \( f^{-1}(y) = \sqrt{y} \) and \( f^{-1}(y) = -\sqrt{y} \) respectively.
  • One participant expresses confusion regarding the bijectiveness of \( x^2 \) over intervals that include zero, questioning whether its continuity could imply bijectiveness despite not being strictly increasing.
  • Another participant clarifies that \( f(x) = x^2 \) on the interval \([0, \infty)\) is strictly increasing, thus supporting its bijectiveness in that specific domain.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally disagree on the bijectiveness of \( x^2 \) when defined over domains that include zero. While some argue it is not bijective due to the presence of zero, others contend that it can be bijective under certain restrictions.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved questions regarding the implications of continuity and strict monotonicity on the bijectiveness of functions, particularly in relation to boundary points like zero.

hangover
Messages
13
Reaction score
0
If a function is bijective, then its inverse exists. Is there any example that inverse of a function exists but the original function is not bijective?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
A function has to be bijective in order to have an inverse.
 
A function can be locally bijective, so it's inverse exists only in some finite interval.

For example [tex]x^{2}[/tex] is not a bijective in any interval containing x=0 (since f'(0)=0) but if you restrict yourself to x>0, then you off course have the inverse
[tex]f(x)=\sqrt{x}[/tex] or in x<0 the inverse is [tex]f(x)=-\sqrt{x}[/tex].
 
Last edited:
Another example. f(x)= ex, as a function from R to R, is not surjective, so not and does not have an inverse. In particular, there is no f-1(-1). But if I consider it as a function from R to R+, the positive real numbers, then it is bijective and f-1(x)= ln(x).

A function, from A to B, has an inverse if and only if it is bijective.
 
Thanks a lot! It may be a typo in my textbook.

elibj123 said:
A function can be locally bijective, so it's inverse exists only in some finite interval.

For example [tex]x^{2}[/tex] is not a bijective in any interval containing x=0 (since f'(0)=0) but if you restrict yourself to x>0, then you off course have the inverse
[tex]f(x)=\sqrt{x}[/tex] or in x<0 the inverse is [tex]f(x)=-\sqrt{-x}[/tex].

However, why is x^2 not bijective if we define the domain containing zero(like x=>0)? It is a continuous function so isn't it bijective at this interval though being not strictly increasing? Thanks
 
f(x) = x2 on [0, infinity) is strictly increasing. If a and b are any two numbers in this interval such that a < b, then f(a) < f(b).
 
hangover said:
Thanks a lot! It may be a typo in my textbook.
However, why is x^2 not bijective if we define the domain containing zero(like x=>0)? It is a continuous function so isn't it bijective at this interval though being not strictly increasing? Thanks
I had a little confusion in defining the inverse sorry.

For [tex]x\geq 0[/tex] the inverse of [tex]y=x^{2}[/tex] is [tex]x=f^{-1}(y)=\sqrt{y}[/tex]For [tex]x\leq 0[/tex] the inverse of [tex]y=x^{2}[/tex] is [tex]x=f^{-1}(y)=-\sqrt{y}[/tex]

Notice of course that the inverse is defined only over [tex]y\geq 0[/tex], since the range of x^2 is only the non-negative real numbers.

Also, the interval where the function can be define as a bijection may inclue x=0, but only as a boundary point.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K